/614 0 Endodontics II Preparation (Pr. Khoeung Rath Visal) 1 / 614 1) According to “apical box preparation” technique, the apical enlargement of the palatal root of an upper molar should be: a. Size 60-70 b. Size 60-100 c. Size 60-80 d. Size 60-90 2 / 614 2) If the patient is allergic to penicillin, which antibiotic should be used as an alternative? a. Metronidazole b. Clindamycin c. Amoxicillin d. Augmentin 3 / 614 3) Using a conservative approach, what is the restoration of choice for a small class II MOD cavity in a posterior root-treated tooth with limited functional and lateral stresses? a. Amalgam filling with cuspal coverage. b. GIC filling c. Overlay d. Direct composite or inlay 4 / 614 4) Patients scheduled for retreatment: a. should expect surgical intervention. b. may complain of thermal response on an adjacent tooth. c. should expect successful resolution. d. may expect to have less interappointment pain. 5 / 614 5) Anachoresis is: a. The infection via caries b. The Infection via accessory canals from periodontal pocket c. The infection via exposed dentin at the cervical area d. The infection via blood circulation 6 / 614 6) How do bacteria and their byproducts usually reach the pulp? a. When the pulp is exposed by traumatic injuries b. Through the cracks c. When the pulp is exposed by caries d. Through the dentinal tubules 7 / 614 7) What may not be one of the ways to manage the bleeding during endodontic surgery? a. Proper local anesthesia b. Obstruction by mechanical means, such as plugging bone cavity with bone wax. c. Premedication with coagulating factors d. Electrocoagulation 8 / 614 8) How many configurations can apical constriction have? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 9 / 614 9) Canal obliteration as seen radiographically is usually indicative of: a. irreversible pulpitis with dentinoclastic activity b. long-term low-grade irritation but not necessarily of irreversible pulpitis c. severe irritation and irreversible pulpitis d. previous trauma to the tooth 10 / 614 10) Effeciency of irrigation is affected by: a. Depth of needle penetration b. Frequency of use c. All of above d. Temperature of irrigation e. Coronal pre- enlargement 11 / 614 11) The objective of pulpotomy is to: a. Preserve vitality of radicular pulp b. Preserve vitality of coronal pulp c. None of the above d. Preserve vitality of entire pulp e. Regenerate a degenerated and necrotic pulp 12 / 614 12) If the radiolucent lesion has neither become larger or significantly smaller in size after more than 1 year of follow-up, how should we evaluate the outcome of the treatment? a. Success b. Success if no clinical signs and symptoms c. Questionable status d. Failure 13 / 614 13) The diameter of dentinal tubules at the inner surface of the dentin is:? a. 1.5-2 m b. 2-2.5 m c. 2.5-3 m d. 1-1.5 m 14 / 614 14) Which is not a factor to consider when making a decision about the timing of obturation? a. Pulp and periradicular status b. Bacterial culture c. Patients symptoms d. Degree of difficulty 15 / 614 15) If an instrument is broken at the apex of a canal after the root canal preparation is completed of a tooth with a periapical lesion, and the separated instrumented can neither be retrieved nor bypassed, how would the prognosis be like? a. The prognosis is poor b. The case will absolute fail c. The prognosis is guarded d. The prognosis should not be affected 16 / 614 16) Which condition always requires incision and drainage? a. Pulp necrosis without swelling b. Irreversible pulpitis c. Pulp necrosis with localized swelling d. Pulp necrosis with diffuse swelling 17 / 614 17) Which instrument should be used to remove the coronal portion of GP in an attempt to retreat a failure case? a. Hand files, particularly H-files b. Heated instrument c. Gates-Glidden burs d. Ultrasonic devices 18 / 614 18) Which apical landmark is the part of root canal with the smallest diameter? a. Apical constriction b. Cemento-dentinal junction c. Anatomic apex d. Apical Foramen 19 / 614 19) Which is not one of the chemicals used to control the bleeding during endodontic surgery? a. Epinephrine b. Aluminum chlorite c. Formocresol d. Ferric sulfate 20 / 614 20) An adequate restoration after an endodontic treatment should have all of the following properties except one which is: a. The restoration should maximize cuspal flexure b. The restoration should provide a coronal seal c. The restoration should protect the remaining tooth structure d. The restoration should satisfy function and esthetics 21 / 614 21) Which is the amount of anesthetic solution injected in intraosseous injection? a. 0.2 ml b. 0.5 ml c. 0.7 ml d. 1 ml 22 / 614 22) What is the loading dose of penicillin VK? a. 500 mg b. 300 mg c. 1000 mg d. 600 mg 23 / 614 23) According to “apical box preparation” technique, the apical enlargement of lower premolars with one canal should be: a. Size 50-80 b. Size 40-70 c. Size 60-90 d. Size 30-60 24 / 614 24) Which material cannot be used as a base for composite restoration? a. ZOE b. MTA c. GIC d. Ca(OH)2 25 / 614 25) Inflammation of pulp, due to deep caries and cavity preparation , may be resolved by: a. There is no medication or material that activity promotes pulp healing b. All of above c. Calcium hydroxide d. ZnoE base 26 / 614 26) A tooth that has been injured, a color change to gray after a few weeks is usually indicates: a. Internal resorption that is reversible b. Internal hemorrhage that is reversible c. Pulp necrosis d. Pulpitis 27 / 614 27) The root canal is ready for obturation: a. When the gutta-percha has extended beyond the apex. b. When the gutta-percha placed to apical constriction exhibits resistance on removal. c. After cementation. d. When the gutta-percha is easily removed from the root canal. 28 / 614 28) Root canal cements should: a. Be bacteriostatic. b. Be radiolucent. c. Be bactericidal. d. Set quickly. 29 / 614 29) A motion in which a file is rotated 60-90 degree clockwise and then move counter-clockwise through 120-360 degree is called:? a. Balanced force motion b. Reaming motion c. Turn and pull motion d. Watch winding motion 30 / 614 30) Which solution can be used as an alternative to EDTA? a. H2O2 b. Citric acid c. Saline water d. Iodine potassium iodide 31 / 614 31) What is the restoration of choice for a posterior tooth with a large decay and less than half of the tooth structure remained? a. Direct composite b. Post and core + full crown c. Composite core + full crown d. Endocrown 32 / 614 32) You started RCT on tooth #46 two days ago which was asymptomatic. Patient was given another appointment to finish the RCT. The patient came back to your clinic complaining of severe pain when chewing on the same tooth. Clinical examination revealed pain on percussion only. Radiograph shows normal apical area. The cause of the pain might be: a. overfilling b. caries was left in the access opening. c. over-instrumentation. d. all of the above 33 / 614 33) A disadvantage of Cavit as compared to IRM as a temporary restoration is that Cavit: a. Shrinks while setting b. Does not have as much compressive strength c. A strength enough d. None of above 34 / 614 34) Which cell type is the source of radicular cyst formation? a. Epithelial cell rests of Malassez b. Fibroblasts c. Cementoblasts d. Periodontal ligament cells 35 / 614 35) Which should be the common procedure for emergency treatment of irreversible pulpitis with pulp exposure? a. Pulp capping with cotton pellet soaked with eugenol b. Pulp extirpation c. Pulpotomy d. Pulpectomy 36 / 614 36) Which of the following conditions cannot be treated surgically using triangular flap? a. Crowns with subgingival margin b. Cervical root resorption c. Coronally-located perforation d. Resection of long roots 37 / 614 37) Moat important aspect of irrigation is: a. Type of irrigate b. Action of solution c. Size of needle d. Quantity of irrigate 38 / 614 38) Which of the following is a desirable property of an ideal sealer? a. Insoluble to tissue fluid b. Insoluble in solvent c. Soluble to tissue fluid d. Insoluble in solvent but soluble to tissue fluid 39 / 614 39) Which motion is best used to negotiate the root canal with small files to length? a. Watch winding motion b. Reaming motion c. Balanced force motion d. Turn and pull motion 40 / 614 40) What will happen if we do not completely remove all the contents of pulp chamber? a. It is impossible to gain straight line access b. Nothing happens c. It is hard to locate canal orifices d. Contamination or infection of the endodontic space can occur 41 / 614 41) Which solution is used to disinfect the operating field after rubber dam placement? a. EDTA b. 5% iodine tincture c. Citric acid d. 30% hydrogen peroxide 42 / 614 42) ការព្យាបាល Chronic ulcerative Pulpitis is: a. Extraction b. Root canal treatment c. Crown d. Filling 43 / 614 43) The causes of pulp injury associated with dental procedures, there are : a. Machanical b. All of about c. Electrical d. Chemical e. Thermal 44 / 614 44) H files used by : a. Force into the canals b. Rotate into the dentine and withdraw c. Withdrawal up each aspect of root canal d. Screw into the dentine and withdraw 45 / 614 45) K files used by a. Axial movement b. Enlargement the canals c. Less aggressive the canal wall than the H files d. All of above 46 / 614 46) The highest incidence of the pulp necrosis is associated with: a. Inlay preparation b. Class V preparation on buccal surface c. Full crown Preparation d. Partial veneer restorations 47 / 614 47) Which statement is true? a. NaOCl can bind to dentin and remains antimicrobial b. H2O2 can bind to dentin and remains antimicrobial c. EDTA can bind to dentin and remains antimicrobial d. Chlorhexidine can bind to dentin and remains antimicrobial 48 / 614 48) What shape is the access cavity for upper and lower molars? a. Rectangle b. Round c. Ovoid d. Triangular 49 / 614 49) Which one is a benefit of wide apical preparation? a. Removal of infected dentin b. Ideal for thermoplastic obturation c. Less compaction of hard tissue debris in canal spaces d. Risks of preparation errors are reduced 50 / 614 50) Upper second premolars usually have: a. Four canals b. Two canals c. One canal d. Three canals 51 / 614 51) How can oral and maxillofacial surgery cause pulp injury and necrosis? a. By flap elevation b. By severing or interrupting blood vessel to the pulp. c. By using local anesthetic containing high concentrations of epinephrine. d. By intrasulcular incision 52 / 614 52) Why high-torque handpiece should only be used for detail work and to excavate carious soft dentin? a. Because it is hard to handle b. Because it leads to bur vibration which may cause internal bleeding of the pulp. c. Because it is too slow d. Because it cannot be used with water spray 53 / 614 53) The final restoration of an anterior tooth with largely intact crown or moderately class 3 or 4, but with discoloration resistant to bleaching should be: a. GIC filling b. Veneer or full crown c. Always a veneer d. Composite filling 54 / 614 54) Which one has the most tissue-dissolving ability? a. 10% NaOCl b. 0.5% NaOCl c. 5.25% NaOCl d. 2.5% NaOCl 55 / 614 55) Using a conservative approach, what is the restoration of choice for a small class II MO/OD cavity in a posterior root-treated tooth with limited functional and lateral stresses? a. Direct composite or inlay b. GIC filling c. Amalgam filling with cuspal coverage. d. Overlay 56 / 614 56) បរុសម្នាក់មកគ្លីនិករបស់ខ្ញុំហើយត្អួញត្អែរថាគាត់ ឈឺចាប់បន្តិចបន្តួចលើកលែងតែ ពេលទំពាចំណីអាហារចូលក្នូង Cavity។អ្នកជំងឺនេះមានរោគវិនិច្ឆ័យ: a. Pulp necrosis b. Hyperemia c. Acute pulpitis d. Chronic ulcerative pulpitis 57 / 614 57) មូលហេតុអ្វីដែលចាំបាច់ត្រូវយកចេញនូវ Metal Crown មុនពេលរៀបចំ Access Cavity ?: a. The metal will create false readings when electronic apex locator is used b. Dam clamps may loosen the crown c. Metal shaving may drop into canal d. The tooth may be rotated under the crown 58 / 614 58) The plexus of Raschkow is located: a. Beneath the cell-free zone b. Beneath the cell-rich zone c. Beneath the odontoblast layer d. In the center of the pulp chamber 59 / 614 59) A 10-year-old child presents with mild discomfort in teeth #21 and #22. The teeth were traumatized the day before in a fall from a motorcycle. Clinical examination reveals both teeth are tender to percussion and the crowns are intact. Cold test using Endoice indicated that the teeth#21and#22 are not responsive. Treatment plan for such case is: a. Heat testing for teeth #21 and #22. b. No treatment and follow-up of the patient over the next few weeks. c. Partial pulpotomy for teeth #21 and #22. d. Root canal treatment for teeth #21 and #22. 60 / 614 60) Zinc-oxide eugenol cement has all the following properties except one which is:? a. Anti-inflammatory b. Fluoride releasing c. Anti-bacterial d. Sedative 61 / 614 61) Cervical pulpotomy is also called:? a. Partial pulpotomy b. Full pulpotomy c. Complete pulpotomy d. Cvek pulpotomy 62 / 614 62) Fibers in the pulp tissue are mainly: a. Other types of fiber neither collagen nor elastic fibers b. Collagen c. Elastic fibers d. Both collagen and elastic fibers equally 63 / 614 63) In horizontal sections, which is the most common shape of apical constriction? a. Irregular b. Circular c. Oval d. Ribbon-shaped 64 / 614 64) What is the dosage of penicillin VK? a. loading dose of 500 followed by 250 mg every 6 hours for 7 days. b. loading dose of 1000 mg followed by 500 mg every 6 hours for 7 days c. loading dose of 1000 followed by 500 mg every 8 hours for 7 days. d. loading dose of 500 followed by 250 mg every 8 hours for 7 days 65 / 614 65) According to “apical box preparation” technique, the apical enlargement of lower premolars with two canals should be: a. Size 40-55 b. Size 30-45 c. Size 35-50 d. Size 45-60 66 / 614 66) Why do we usually need to resect the root end for apical surgery? a. Because the root end is usually curve lingually/palatally that it is hard to see the apical foramen. b. To provide a convenient access to the root canal for the apical instrumentation c. Because the root end is rich of dentinal tubules. d. Because the root end is not important in term of crown/root ratio 67 / 614 67) Which is the most common dental emergency? a. Endodontic-related problems b. Periodontal-related problems c. Dental caries d. Pericoronitis 68 / 614 68) A Pregnant patient in her first trimester attends for dental examination, which of the following is correct: a. She should receive the normal x-ray dose for endodontic therapy. b. You should delay use of x-ray until the second trimester. c. she is not at risk from pharmacologic intervention. d. She is not candidates for electronic apex locators. 69 / 614 69) While pulp testing a tooth, a false-negative response is likely to occur: a. In a patient heavily premedicated with analgesics, narcotics, alcohol, or tranquilizers. b. in the presence of periodontal disease. c. most often in teenagers. d. Primarily in anterior teeth. 70 / 614 70) Cavity test: a. Used to diagnosis the condition of periapical tissue b. Considered a non aggressive method of testing c. Is the last resort to identify a necrotic tooth d. Is a comment diagnosis procedure 71 / 614 71) Which color of rubber dam should be used if possible? a. White b. Blue c. Yellow d. Green 72 / 614 72) For the extirpation of entire pulp, necrotic debris, and foreing material, one should use: a. Bures b. Barbed broaches c. Files d. Reamer 73 / 614 73) For the extripation of entire pulp, necrotic debris, and foreign material, one should use a. Bures b. Files c. Raemers d. Barbed broaches 74 / 614 74) What is the main advantage of stepwise excavation? a. Complete caries removal b. Easier to be performed than indirect pulp capping without re-entry c. No risk of pulp exposure at all d. Has higher success rates than indirect pulp capping without re-entry 75 / 614 75) Which are the two universal clamp designs? a. Ivory 9 and Ivory 56 b. Ivory 56 and Ivory 2 c. Ivory 2 and Ivory 9 d. Ivory 14 and Ivory 14A 76 / 614 76) The most comment cause of Acute pulpitis is: a. Chemical b. Electrical c. Mechanical d. Bacterial 77 / 614 77) When endodontically treating the maxillary first molar, which of the following is correct: a. It has a palatal root that curves lingually. b. It should be approached for endodontic treatment with the assumption that one canal exists in the mesiobuccal root. c. It should be approached for endodontic treatment with the assumption that two canals exist in the mesiobuccal root. d. It has a distobuccal root with two canals ending in a common ortifice. 78 / 614 78) Among all types of electronic apex locator, which type is the less reliable and accuracy? a. The second generation b. The third generation c. The fourth generation d. The first generation 79 / 614 79) How to incise for drainage? a. Vertically b. Obliquely c. Either one of the above direction d. Horizontally 80 / 614 80) If the canals are weeping, what shall we do? a. Leave the tooth open and dismiss the patient b. Sit the patient up for a while until the drainage stop then continue the treatment c. Just ignore that, and continue with the treatment in a usual manner d. Aspirate the drainage with a syringe to speed up the process 81 / 614 81) What are the responses of the pulp tissue to non-destructive stimuli? a. No response b. Minute and rapid movement of dentinal fluid c. Huge amount and rapid movement of dentinal fluid d. Minute and slow movement of dentinal fluid 82 / 614 82) What is a symptom of pulp polyp: a. Pain during mastication b. Patient complain the lump in the mouth c. Large, open cavity d. All of above 83 / 614 83) The properties of chlorhexidine are as follows except one: a. No tissue-dissolving capability b. No bad smell c. Lower toxicity than NaOCl d. No reduced activity in the presence of organic matter 84 / 614 84) Which is the main component of the dentin? a. Non-collagenous proteins b. Collagen c. Hydroxyapatite d. Water 85 / 614 85) Regarding Percussion testing, which of the following is correct: a. Stimulates proprioceptive fibers in the periodontal ligament. b. Indicates tooth fracture. c. Must be performed with a blunt instrument. d. Differentiates pain of periodontal origin. 86 / 614 86) According to “apical box preparation” technique, the apical enlargement of upper first premolar with one canal should be: a. Size 30-50 b. Size 60-80 c. Size 40-60 d. Size 50-70 87 / 614 87) Upper second premolars usually have a. One canal b. Three canals c. Two canals d. Four canals 88 / 614 88) The effects of mechanical instrument are enhanced by all of the following properties of root canal irrigation except one:? a. Removing smear layer b. Removing infected dentin c. Exerting antibacterial effect d. Dissolving necrotic tissue remnants, especially in areas where the instruments cannot reach 89 / 614 89) A Fourth canal typically found in which of the following: a. Maxillary second premolars. b. Maxillary first premolars. c. Maxillary first molars. d. Mandibular premolars. 90 / 614 90) មានអ្នកជំងឺមានdraining sinus tract in labial vestibule of a maxillary central incisor. To confirm your diagnosis about the original of pathoses you should: a. Thread gutta percha through the root canal and expose the radiograph b. Thread the gutta percha through the tract and expose a radiograph c. Open the concerned root chamber d. Taking the radiograph 91 / 614 91) X rays are used in endodontic treatment to: a. All of the above b. Aid in the diagnosis of periapical hard tissue lesion c. Evaluate the adequacy of the complete root canal filling d. Determine the number, location, shape, size and direction of roots and root canals e. Confirm the length of root canals 92 / 614 92) Which of the following is not a procedural error usually caused by improper straight-line access? a. Ledge b. Furcation perforation c. Apical perforation d. Zipping 93 / 614 93) Most cases of pulpitis are caused by: a. Bacterial invasion from bloodstream b. Chemical irritation from sterilizing agent c. Injudicious cavity preparation d. Bacterial invasion from carious lesion 94 / 614 94) Which bone lines the socket of the tooth? a. Ramus b. Alveolar bone c. Cortical bone d. Mylohyoid bone 95 / 614 95) If severe endodontic flare-ups occur despite the complete instrumentation in an irreversible pulpitis case, what should we usually do? a. Do nothing; the problem will be solved by itself. b. reopen the tooth and leave it open for a few days. c. reopen the tooth and re-instrument. d. Just reassure the patient and prescribe strong analgesics 96 / 614 96) CHX is normally used at concentrations between: a. O.01% and 0.12% b. 5% and 10% c. 2% and 5% d. 0.12% and 2% 97 / 614 97) Which is the best treatment of failed root canal therapy: a. Prescription of antibiotic and trong analgesic b. Retreatment of the root canal c. Extraction of the the tooth and placement of implant d. Periapical surgery with retrograde filling 98 / 614 98) When should metronidazole be prescribed in addition to penicillin? a. When the patient’s condition is not improving after 72 hours of taking only penicillin. b. When the patient is allergic to Augmentin c. Whenever possible. d. When there is only a mild indication of systemic antibiotic therapy 99 / 614 99) Which of the following factors does not affect the outcome of vital pulp therapy? a. Preoperative pulpal status b. The pulp capping material used c. Patient’s medical conditions d. Quality of the final restoration 100 / 614 100) The treatment of choice for the vital wide apex tooth which shows the pulp exposure is: a. Pulpotomy b. Extraction c. Pulpectomy d. Ca(OH)2 101 / 614 101) Trigeminal neuvralgia differs from odontogenic pain by being: a. Sharp and shooting b. Dull and continuous c. Sharp, shooting repetitive and triggered d. Dull 102 / 614 102) Most of endodontic flare-ups can be managed by: a. Analgesics b. Antibiotics c. Incision and drainage d. Intervention by the clinician 103 / 614 103) Endodontic radiograph in diagnosis is: a. Characterizing normal structure b. Determining root/ pulpal anatomy c. All of about d. Identifying pathosis 104 / 614 104) Which dentin is formed during tooth development? a. Secondary dentin b. Reparative dentin c. Primary dentin d. Tertiary dentin 105 / 614 105) What is not an advantage of plastic material build-ups (particularly composite) with post over the use of cast post and core? a. Stronger than cast post and core b. Saves cost c. Saving tooth structure d. Saves chairside time 106 / 614 106) When chlorhexidine is mixed with EDTA, what will occur? a. a white precipitate is formed, and the ability of EDTA to reduce the smear layer is reduced. b. Nothing happens c. a brownish-orange precipitate containing parachloroaniline (PCA), which is toxic and mutagenic, is formed. d. NaOCl will lose its tissue-dissolving capacity. 107 / 614 107) Which is a more important factor as a cause of tooth fracture after endodontic treatment without a protective restoration? a. Cusp slope b. Loss of tooth structure, particularly loss of marginal ridge c. Restorative material d. Brittle dentin 108 / 614 108) Bent burs should be discarded because:? a. They may vibrate or rotate eccentrically b. Burs are not expensive c. They can be fractured during the cavity preparation d. They become dull and cannot cut dentin efficiently 109 / 614 109) According to “apical box preparation” technique, the apical enlargement of mesio-buccal root of an upper molar with 2 canals should be: a. Size 35-45 b. Size 30-40 c. Size 40-50 d. Size 25-35 110 / 614 110) How many types of motion to manipulate endodontic hand instruments? a. 3 b. 6 c. 4 d. 5 111 / 614 111) The pulpectomy immediate are: a. Given anesthesia b. Extirpation c. Access cavity d. All of above 112 / 614 112) The true working length is confirmed with a radiograph using a: a. Size 15 file b. Size 8 file c. Size 10 file d. Size 20 file 113 / 614 113) Which of the following tests is used detect periodontal status? a. Percussion b. Palpation c. Bite test d. Mobility test 114 / 614 114) When EDTA is mixed with NaOCl, what will happen? a. Brownish-orange precipitate containing parachloroaniline (PCA), which is toxic and mutagenic, is formed. b. Nothing happens c. NaOCl will lose its tissue-dissolving capacity. d. White precipitate is formed, and the ability of EDTA to reduce the smear layer is reduced. 115 / 614 115) Pulpotomy is must be: a. យកតែ pulp chamberដែលមានInfection b. យកតែpulp roots c. Remove pulp chamber d. Remove all pulp 116 / 614 116) What is the most common reason to endodontically treat primary teeth? a. To prevent the crowding of permanent dentition by maintaining the space. b. To improve the child’s self-esteem c. To keep the tooth symptom-free and functional. d. To improve the child’s overall health 117 / 614 117) A patient presents wet a draining sinus tract in labial vestibule of a maxillary Central incisor. a. Open the concerned root chamber b. Thread the guttapercha through the tract and expose aradiograph c. Thread guttapercha through the root canal and expose theradiograph d. To confirm your diagnosis about the origin of pathoses you should e. Taking the bite wing radiograph 118 / 614 118) Which method is helpful in determine the working length of an immature tooth? a. The use of anatomical averages and knowledge of anatomy b. Electronic apex locator c. Moisture on a paper point d. Tactile sense 119 / 614 119) In which condition should a final permanent restoration most likely be delayed after completing endodontic treatment? a. Slight overfill with root canal sealer b. Non-retrievable broken instrument which compromises the endodontic treatment of teeth with limited access to apical surgery c. Teeth with large periapical lesions but where apical surgery may correct the problem in case of failure. d. Underfilled obturation 120 / 614 120) Which are the two commonly used material for indirect pulp capping? a. Calcium hydroxide and mineral trioxide aggregate b. Calcium hydroxide and resin-modified glass ionomer cement c. Calcium hydroxide and zinc-oxide eugenol cement d. Calcium hydroxide and Cavit 121 / 614 121) What is the restoration of choice for a large class II MO/OD cavity in a posterior root-treated tooth with limited functional and lateral stresses? a. Full crown b. Direct composite or inlay c. GIC filling d. Overlay 122 / 614 122) To avoid improper use which would result in broken instruments: a. We should not remove and clean instrument of shaved dentin periodically during instrument process. b. We should always instrument in a dry canal c. We should not precurve files d. We should not force a file further when its progress in hindered 123 / 614 123) To find pulp horns, which instrument is most useful? a. A small round bur b. A Probe c. A file with a curved tip d. A Hedstrom File 124 / 614 124) ក្នុង Patient’s Complaint គ្រូពេទ្យត្រូវ a. Listening and record patient words. b. Taking action to patient c. All of above d. Ask some question to patient 125 / 614 125) Third degree tetracycline staining is: a. Dark brown b. Dark yellow c. Dark grey d. Too dark to bleach 126 / 614 126) Which dentin is formed in response to the injury? a. Secondary dentin b. Tertiary dentin c. Peritubular dentin d. Primary dentin 127 / 614 127) The final restoration of an anterior tooth with a large decay but with more than 1/2 of tooth structure remained plus ferrule effect, and with limited overbite and functional stresses should be: a. Ceramic post and core + full crown b. Fiber post and core + full crown c. Adhesive core + full crown d. Metal post and core + full crown 128 / 614 128) What instrument is NOT ever needed for access preparation? a. RA Steel round burs b. Gates Glidden Drills c. Long shank burs d. High speed diamond burs 129 / 614 129) Which are the characteristics that make the pulp tissue different from other soft connective tissues in the human body? a. Encased within hard-tissue walls but rich of collateral blood supply b. Not encased within hard-tissue walls and rich of collateral blood supply c. Not encased within hard-tissue walls but lack of collateral blood supply d. Encased within hard-tissue walls and lack of collateral blood supply 130 / 614 130) Fractured instruments may be avoided by: a. Jumping between different sizes of instruments b. Not forcing instruments c. Not sterilizing them d. Not pre- curving them 131 / 614 131) According to “apical box preparation” technique, the apical enlargement of upper canine should be: a. Size 50-70 b. Size 40-60 c. Size 30-50 d. Size 60-80 132 / 614 132) The patient reports spontaneous pain and responses with extreme pain to cold test. Periapical tests give a normal response, and the radiograph also shows normal periapical structure. The pulpal diagnosis of this case would be: a. Symptomatic Irreversible Pulpitis b. Asymptomatic irreversible pulpitis c. Normal pulp d. Reversible pulpitis 133 / 614 133) What is the conservative approach to restore a posterior tooth with a large decay but with more than half of the tooth structure remained and no esthetic concern? a. Direct composite b. Endocrown c. Composite core + full crown d. Post and core + full crown 134 / 614 134) Which of the following cells are not found in the pulp tissue? a. Ameloblasts b. Odontoblasts c. Vascular and neural cells d. Cells of immune system 135 / 614 135) បរុសម្នាក់មកគ្លីនិករបស់ខ្ញុំហើយត្អួញត្អែរ ថាគាត់ឈឺធ្មេញថ្គាមក្រោម ឈឺចាប់ស្រួច( sharp pain) ជាមួយ ទឹកត្រ ជាក់តែរយះពេលខ្លីយ៉ាងយូបំផុតមួយនាទី។អ្នកជំងឺនេះមានរោគវិនិច្ឆ័យ: a. Hyperemia b. Pulpitis c. Pulp Necrosis d. Chronic pulpitis 136 / 614 136) បរុសម្នាក់មកគ្លីនិករបស់ខ្ញុំហើយត្អួញត្អែរ ថាគាត់ឈឺធ្មេញថ្គាមក្រោម ឈឺចាប់ជាមួយទឹកត្រជាក់ ឬដោយជញ្ជក់ មាត់ការឈឺចាប់នេះនូវតែបន្តទោះបីយកចេញនូវអ្វីដែលជាមូលហេតុក៏ដោយ។ អ្នកជំងឺនេះមានរោគវិនិច្ឆ័យ: a. Acute Pulpitis b. Pulp Necrosis c. Chronic pulpitis d. Hyperemia 137 / 614 137) For rubber dam, which thickness seals best? a. Light b. Extra heavy c. Heavy d. Medium 138 / 614 138) Lower permenant premolars: a. Are on average, 19 mm long. b. Rarely present complex mechanical problems. c. Can have more than one canal 12% to 23% of the time. d. Are less prone to acute exacerbations. 139 / 614 139) The order of treatment recommended for emergency treatment is: a. pulp/periodontal, caries control, extraction. b. pulp/periodontal, oral surgery, caries control. c. oral surgery, caries, pulp/periodontal. d. caries control, pulp/periodontal, oral surgery. 140 / 614 140) Which dentin plays a role in creating the sclerosis of the dentinal tubules? a. Primary dentin b. Secondary dentin c. Peritubular dentin d. Intratubular dentin 141 / 614 141) Usually, the bucco-lingual dimension of apical constriction is larger than that of mesio-distal by how many millimeters? a. O.025 mm b. 0.05 mm c. 0.5 mm d. 0.25 mm 142 / 614 142) Which analgesics should be used for mild pain? a. Combination of acetaminophen and oxycodone b. Combination of ibuprofen and hydrocodone c. Combination of acetaminophen and codeine d. Ibuprofen alone 143 / 614 143) Pulp stones are most often seen in: a. Aged pulp or acute inflamed pulp b. Young pulp or acute inflamed pulp c. Young pulp or chronically inflamed pulp d. Aged pulp or chronically inflamed pulp 144 / 614 144) The infection of root canal system is related to: a. single obligate anaerobic species. b. mixed aerobic and anaerobic microorganisms c. none of the above d. multiple aerobic species only. 145 / 614 145) Which technique can we use to remove any residual sealer after GP removal in a retreatment case? a. Balanced-force technique b. Crown-down technique c. Step-back technique d. Wicking technique 146 / 614 146) After cleansing, the dentin surface should be: a. Dried thoroughly using a strong air blast b. Left to dry by itself c. Left wet d. Dried using shorts blasts of air and cotton pellet 147 / 614 147) Which of the following is not a potential cause of obturation-related failure? a. Lack of coronal seal b. Lack of lateral seal c. Lack of apical seal d. Lack of primary seal 148 / 614 148) At the inner surface of the dentin, the number of dentinal tubules is: a. 50/ mm2 b. 5000/ mm2 c. 50000/ mm2 d. 500/ mm2 149 / 614 149) The innervation of the pulp tissue consists of: a. B-fibers and C-fibers b. C-fibers and D-fibers c. A-fibers and B-fibers d. A-fibers and C-fibers 150 / 614 150) SmearClear is a combination product of: a. NaOCl + Detergent b. H2O2+ Detergent c. Chlorhexidine + Detergent d. EDTA + Detergent 151 / 614 151) A pentency file or intial file: a. Should be used vigorously b. Is sued to deliberately enlarge the foramen c. Is a generally accepted technique d. Should be small and flexible 152 / 614 152) Chlor-XTRA is a combination product of: a. H2O2+ Detergent b. EDTA + Detergent c. Chlorhexidine + Detergent d. NaOCl + Detergent 153 / 614 153) Biologically active sealer which promote peri- apical healing contain: a. Zinc Phosphate b. Ca(OH)2 c. Glass Ionomer d. ZnO Engonol 154 / 614 154) The pulpotomy is the surgical removal of: a. The root pulp b. The coronal pulp with leave radicular pulp healthy. c. Dental pulp d. The coronal pulp 155 / 614 155) The end result of pulp polyp is:? a. Pulp necrosis b. Self-repair and become normal pulp c. Remains as pulp polyp d. Just chronic inflamed pulp and never develop to pulp necrosis 156 / 614 156) What type of dentine has to be removed during the indirect pulp capping procedure? a. Infected dentine b. Affected dentine c. Reparative dentine d. Tertiary dentine 157 / 614 157) Which of the following tests is mainly use to detect cracks? a. Radiograph b. Transillumination c. Percussion d. Cavity test 158 / 614 158) Which dentin is formed physiologically after the tooth is fully developed? a. Tertiary dentin b. Secondary dentin c. Reparative dentin d. Primary dentin 159 / 614 159) Which irrigant can remove smear layer? a. H2O2 b. EDTA c. Chlorhexidine d. NaOCl 160 / 614 160) According to “apical box preparation” technique, the apical enlargement of both canals of mesial root of a lower molar should be: a. Size 30-40 b. Size 45-55 c. Size 40-50 d. Size 35-45 161 / 614 161) What are the success rates of pulpectomy if carried out properly? a. 80-85% b. 90-95% c. 95-100% d. 85-90% 162 / 614 162) Which of the following statements is not correct about the age changes in the dental pulp? a. The odontoblastic layer becomes reduced or missing b. Fibrosis is common c. Number of cells is reduced d. Pulp stones decrease 163 / 614 163) A good root filling of endodontic is : a. Apical contriction b. Apex radiologic c. Apex of root d. Apical foramen 164 / 614 164) Which of the following statements is not true? a. Absence of any clinical signs and symptoms always confirm the success of endodontic treatment b. Absence of pain and swelling is one of the clinical criteria for success of endodontic treatment. c. Absence of any clinical signs and symptoms does not always confirm the success of endodontic treatment. d. Presence of marked and persistent signs and symptoms probably indicates failure of endodontic treatment. 165 / 614 165) Pain on percussion before endodontic treatment indicates: a. Inflammation of periodontal tissue. b. Reversible pulpitist c. Pulp necrosis d. Irriversible pulpitist 166 / 614 166) Which are the most numerous cells in the pulp? a. Odontoblasts b. Preodontoblasts c. Fibroblasts d. Mesenchymal stem cells 167 / 614 167) What is the chief complaint? a. Is what observed by the clinician b. Is the interpretation of data obtained from clinical signs and symptoms, radiographs and other tests c. Is the diagnosis made by the clinician d. Is the reason for seeking treatment 168 / 614 168) Rooting-filling materials must be a. Low cost. b. Rigid c. Biocompatible. d. Easily dissolve 169 / 614 169) Which is a common premedication used when pulpal anesthesia still fails even all attempts have been tried? a. NSAIDs + acetaminophen b. NSAIDs + antibiotics c. NSAIDs + benzodiazepines d. NSAIDs + antihistamines 170 / 614 170) Why is often advisable to remove an artificial crown from a tooth before preparing an access cavity? a. Dam clamps may loosen the crown b. Metal shavings may drop into the canal c. The metal will create false readings when the electronic apex locator is used d. The tooth may be rotated or tilted under the crown, and the crown just makes it look straight. 171 / 614 171) When can we directly restore the endo-treated teeth? a. In cases where the prognosis is guarded b. In cases where both marginal ridges are lost c. In cases where only little tooth structure remained d. In cases where the cost of the restoration recommended is not a concern for the patient. 172 / 614 172) The best approach for diagnosis of tooth pain is: a. Visual examination b. A step by step examination and test c. Percussion d. X ray examination 173 / 614 173) Which is the most demanding flap in term of the operator’s skill? a. Papilla base flap b. Triangular flap c. Rectangular flap d. Submarginal flap 174 / 614 174) Which cells serve as reserve cells in the pulp tissue? a. Odontoblasts b. Undifferentiated cells c. Osteoblasts d. Fibroblasts 175 / 614 175) What may not be one of the causes of NaOCl accidents? a. Wedging of the irrigation needle b. Lateral perforation of the root c. Inaccurate working length d. Ledge 176 / 614 176) The most common cause of root resection failures is : a. Root canal filling b. Progressive periodontal disease c. Poor oral hygiene d. Root fracture 177 / 614 177) What is the intended use of MTAD? a. As the initial rinse before the root canal preparation b. As the main irrigant c. As a lubricant d. As a final rinse to disinfect the root canal system and remove the smear layer 178 / 614 178) What is the objective of coronal access ?: a. To expose and unroof the pulp chamber to gain visibility, including removal of pulp horns b. To open enough the canal