Immunologie Preparation (Pr. Kruy Sunlay) Q286

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1) Which of the following is an example of an active immunotherapy vaccine?

a. ) Tetanus immunoglobulin

b. ) Immunoglobulin therapy

c. ) Antivenom

d. ) Rituximab

e. ) HPV vaccine

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2) The immune system can distinguish between:

a. ) Acids and base

b. ) Food and water

c. ) DNA and RNA

d. ) Oxygen and carbon dioxide

e. ) Harmful and harmless substances

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3) Which of the following is the primary function of the complement system?

a. ) Enhancing antibody production

b. ) Regulation of blood pressure

c. ) T-cell activation

d. ) Stimulation of B-cells

e. ) Cell lysis and pathogen clearance

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4) What type of immune cells are predominantly found in the lymphoid tissues during acute HIV infection?

a. ) CD4+ T cells

b. ) CD8+ T cells

c. ) Neutrophils

d. ) B cells

e. ) Dendritic cells

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5) Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of protease inhibitors?

a. ) They prevent the viral RNA from being integrated into the host genome.

b. ) They block the HIV virus from entering the host cell.

c. ) They inhibit the replication of HIV by targeting reverse transcriptase.

d. ) They neutralize the HIV virus in the bloodstream.

e. ) They prevent the maturation of new HIV virions by inhibiting protease activity.

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6) Which molecules do APCs use to present antigens to T cells?

a. ) Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC)

b. ) Toll-like receptors

c. ) Cytokines

d. ) Chemokines

e. ) Antibodies

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7) Which of the following is a primary function of macrophages in innate immunity?

a. ) Activate B cells

b. ) Produce cytokines to regulate the immune response

c. ) Produce antibodies

d. ) Present antigens and phagocytose pathogens

e. ) Present antigens and phagocytose pathogens and Produce cytokines to regulate the immune response

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8) Which of the following cells is primarily responsible for the production of antibodies in response to HIV?

a. ) Macrophages

b. ) Dendritic cells

c. ) NK cells

d. ) B cells

e. ) CD8+ T cells

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9) Which antibody class is most commonly associated with allergic reactions?

a. ) IgE

b. ) IgM

c. ) IgA

d. ) IgG

e. ) IgD

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10) What triggers inflammation?

a. ) Phagocytosis

b. ) T cell activation

c. ) Complement activation

d. ) Release of histamines and cytokines

e. ) Memory cell formation

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11) What is the central component of all complement pathways?

a. ) C4

b. ) C1

c. ) C5

d. ) Factor D

e. ) C3

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12) Which diagnostic method is primarily used for viral load quantification?

a. ) Hemagglutination

b. ) Turbidimetry

c. ) PCR

d. ) ELISA

e. ) Western blot

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13) What are Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRs)?

a. ) Molecules that help with blood clotting

b. ) Receptors that detect pathogen-associated patterns

c. ) Enzymes that break down bacteria

d. ) Receptors that bind to antibodies

e. ) Proteins that recognize self-antigens

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14) Which method is commonly used to determine viral load in HIV patients?

a. ) qPCR

b. ) Hemagglutination assay

c. ) Western blot

d. ) Plaque assay

e. ) ELISA

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15) Which of the following is true about HIV transmission?

a. ) HIV cannot be transmitted through shared needles.

b. ) HIV cannot be transmitted via blood.

c. ) HIV can be transmitted via respiratory droplets.

d. ) HIV can be transmitted through casual contact.

e. ) HIV is primarily transmitted through sexual contact and blood.

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16) Which of the following is NOT a feature of AIDS?

a. ) Development of certain cancers

b. ) Progressive depletion of CD4+ T cells

c. ) Severe immunosuppression

d. ) High CD4+ T cell count

e. ) Increased susceptibility to opportunistic infections

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17) What is the key advantage of immunochromatographic assays?

a. ) Long processing time

b. ) High specificity

c. ) Use of radioisotopes

d. ) Requirement of advanced laboratory equipment

e. ) Rapid results

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18) Which method is most commonly used to quantify viral RNA in an infection?

a. ) Western blot

b. ) Hemagglutination assay

c. ) qPCR

d. ) ELISA

e. ) Flow cytometry

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19) What is the role of mast cells?

a. ) Suppress the immune response

b. ) Secrete antibodies

c. ) Release histamines in allergic reactions

d. ) Activate T cells

e. ) Present antigens to B cells

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20) In which type of cells would you NOT find Class I HLA molecules?

a. ) Skin cells

b. ) Muscle cells

c. ) Brain cells

d. ) Kidney cells

e. ) Red blood cells

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21) Which type of immune cell directly presents antigens to T cells?

a. ) Eosinophils

b. ) Macrophages

c. ) Dendritic cells

d. ) Neutrophils

e. ) B cells

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22) What is the role of Helper T cells (CD4⁺)?

a. ) Produce antibodies

b. ) Suppress immune response

c. ) Activate other immune cells

d. ) Destroy infected cells

e. ) Engulf pathogens

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23) What is used as a signal detection system in ELISA?

a. ) Enzymes

b. ) Radioactive isotopes

c. ) Fluorescent dyes

d. ) DNA probes

e. ) Light scattering

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24) What type of ELISA is best for detecting cytokines in a biological sample?

a. ) Sandwich

b. ) Competitive

c. ) Indirect

d. ) Direct

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25) What type of immunity is provided by a vaccine?

a. ) Innate immunity

b. ) Active natural immunity

c. ) Passive artificial immunity

d. ) Passive natural immunity

e. ) Active artificial immunity

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26) Which is a primary lymphoid organ?

a. ) Bone marrow

b. ) Lymph nodes

c. ) Appendix

d. ) Spleen

e. ) Liver

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27) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of active immunotherapy?

a. ) Long-lasting immune responses

b. ) Creation of immune memory

c. ) Immediate immune protection

d. ) Used in cancer and infectious disease treatments

e. ) Stimulation of the body’s immune system

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28) A patient with recurrent episodes of swelling in the face and throat without urticaria likely has:

a. ) Atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome

b. ) Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

c. ) Hereditary angioedema

d. ) Hyperimmunoglobulin E syndrome

e. ) Systemic lupus erythematosus

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29) Which of the following is an example of passive immunotherapy?

a. ) mRNA vaccine for COVID-19

b. ) Diphtheria antitoxin

c. ) BCG vaccine

d. ) Cancer peptide vaccine

e. ) Tuberculosis screening test

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30) What is the primary application of flow cytometry?

a. ) DNA amplification

b. ) Measuring enzyme activity

c. ) Quantification of cellular markers

d. ) Protein separation

e. ) Detecting radioisotopes

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31) Which of these molecules does NOT belong to the HLA system?

a. ) HLA-C

b. ) HLA-M

c. ) HLA-B

d. ) HLA-A

e. ) HLA-DR

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32) HLA matching is critical for which medical procedure?

a. ) Organ transplantation

b. ) Bone fracture treatment

c. ) Chemotherapy

d. ) MRI scanning

e. ) Hemodialysis

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33) Which of the following is a hallmark of AIDS?

a. ) Increase in viral load

b. ) Decrease in CD4+ T cells

c. ) Increase in CD4+ T cells

d. ) Decrease in viral load

e. ) Decrease in CD8+ T cells

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34) What triggers inflammation?

a. ) T cell suppression

b. ) Antibody production

c. ) Release of cytokines and histamines

d. ) Memory cell formation

e. ) B cell activation

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35) Which of the following techniques uses fluorescence-labeled antibodies?

a. ) Latex agglutination

b. ) RIA

c. ) Competitive ELISA

d. ) Nephelometry

e. ) Immunofluorescence

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36) Which antibody class is involved in activating the classical pathway of the complement system?

a. ) IgE

b. ) IgA

c. ) IgD

d. ) IgG

e. ) IgM

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37) Patients with terminal complement component deficiency should receive which vaccination?

a. ) Influenza vaccine

b. ) MMR vaccine

c. ) Meningococcal vaccine

d. ) Diphtheria vaccine

e. ) Hepatitis B vaccine

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38) What is the main difference between HLA Class I and Class II molecules?

a. ) Class I presents antigens to cytotoxic T cells, while Class II presents to helper T cells

b. ) Class I molecules require oxygen for function

c. ) Class II molecules are smaller than Class I molecules

d. ) Class I molecules are found only in immune cells, while Class II are found on all cells

e. ) Class II molecules bind to DNA

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39) What is the primary function of immune checkpoint inhibitors?

a. ) To provide passive antibodies

b. ) To eliminate all white blood cells

c. ) To enhance bacterial infections

d. ) To block immune suppression by tumors

e. ) To replace damaged organs

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40) Which statement about active immunotherapy is TRUE?

a. ) It does not generate immune memory

b. ) It involves injecting pre-formed antibodies

c. ) It provides instant immunity

d. ) It is only used for cancer treatment

e. ) It includes vaccines

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41) Which of the following types of therapy is based on providing pre-made antibodies?

a. ) Active immunotherapy

b. ) Antivenom therapy

c. ) Gene therapy

d. ) Cancer vaccines

e. ) Immune checkpoint inhibitors

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42) Which immune cells recognize antigens without prior exposure?

a. ) Macrophages

b. ) Natural Killer (NK) cells

c. ) Dendritic cells

d. ) Memory B cells

e. ) Plasma cells

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43) Which of the following is a disadvantage of passive immunotherapy?

a. ) It takes weeks to develop an immune response

b. ) It completely prevents infections

c. ) It works only for bacterial infections

d. ) It cannot be used for cancer treatment

e. ) It does not generate long-term immunity

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44) . What is an epitope?

a. ) A type of immune cell

b. ) A cytokine

c. ) A whole antigen

d. ) A chemical released during inflammation

e. ) The specific part of an antigen recognized by antibodies

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45) Helper T cells (CD4+) primarily function to:

a. ) Help activate other immune cells

b. ) Form blood clots

c. ) Produce insulin

d. ) Directly kill infected cells

e. ) Secrete digestive enzymes

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46) The spleen plays a major role in:

a. ) Filtering blood and removing pathogens

b. ) Producing digestive enzymes

c. ) Producing insulin

d. ) Breaking down fats

e. ) Digesting proteins

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47) What does opsonization refer to in the immune response?

a. ) Directly destroying pathogens

b. ) Activation of T cells

c. ) Coating pathogens with molecules to enhance phagocytosis

d. ) Apoptosis of infected cells

e. ) Production of antibodies

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48) Which of the following is NOT part of the innate immune system?

a. ) Antibodies

b. ) Natural killer cells

c. ) Complement proteins

d. ) Neutrophils

e. ) Macrophages

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49) Which of the following is a potential complication of chronic HIV infection?

a. ) Tuberculosis

b. ) Stroke

c. ) Parkinson's disease

d. ) Arthritis

e. ) Heart disease

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50) What is the first line of defense in the immune system?

a. ) Skin and mucous membranes

b. ) Plasma cells

c. ) B cells

d. ) T cells

e. ) Antibodies

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51) What is the function of memory B cells?

a. ) Release histamine

b. ) Kill infected cells

c. ) Suppress immune response

d. ) Provide long-term immunity

e. ) Activate the complement system

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52) Which type of ELISA is best suited for detecting antibodies in patient serum?

a. ) Lateral flow assay

b. ) Sandwich ELISA

c. ) Competitive ELISA

d. ) Indirect ELISA

e. ) Direct ELISA

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53) What is the role of IgD antibodies in the immune system?

a. ) Cross-linking antigens

b. ) Neutralizing toxins

c. ) Serving as a receptor on the surface of B cells to help in their activation

d. ) Activating complement

e. ) Involved in allergic reactions

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54) Which immune response is faster but non-specific?

a. ) Humoral immunity

b. ) Adaptive immunity

c. ) Autoimmunity

d. ) Passive immunity

e. ) Innate immunity

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55) Where are B cell receptors (BCRs) located?

a. ) On the surface of infected cells

b. ) On dendritic cells

c. ) On the surface of B cells

d. ) On the surface of T cells

e. ) Inside macrophages

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56) What is the role of cytokines in the immune response?

a. ) Mediate communication between immune cells

b. ) Kill pathogens

c. ) Present antigens

d. ) Transport oxygen

e. ) Act as antibodies

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57) What type of immunity involves antibodies?

a. ) Passive immunity

b. ) Innate immunity

c. ) Cell-mediated immunity

d. ) Humoral immunity

e. ) Inflammatory response

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58) Which disease is an autoimmune disorder

a. ) Measles

b. ) Malaria

c. ) Tuberculosis

d. ) Diabetes Type 1

e. ) Influenza

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59) Which of the following is an example of active immunotherapy?

a. ) Monoclonal antibody therapy

b. ) Rabies immunoglobulin injection

c. ) Convalescent plasma therapy

d. ) Cancer vaccines

e. ) Antivenom for snake bites

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60) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of innate immunity?

a. ) Involves physical and chemical barriers

b. ) Non-specific defense

c. ) Rapid response

d. ) No memory formation

e. ) Highly specific recognition

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61) Which of the following infections is common in HIV-infected individuals with weakened immune systems?

a. ) Influenza

b. ) Hepatitis B

c. ) Chickenpox

d. ) Pneumocystis pneumonia

e. ) Hepatitis C

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62) Which cells are responsible for presenting antigens via MHC Class I molecules?

a. ) Neutrophils

b. ) All nucleated cells

c. ) Dendritic cells

d. ) Macrophages

e. ) B cells

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63) What type of T cell is activated by MHC-II molecules?

a. ) Regulatory T cells

b. ) Cytotoxic T cells (CD8⁺)

c. ) Helper T cells (CD4⁺)

d. ) Natural Killer cells

e. ) Memory T cells

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64) In a competitive ELISA, how is antigen concentration determined?

a. ) By antigen migration on a strip

b. ) Based on light scattering

c. ) Inversely proportional to signal

d. ) Through radioactivity measurement

e. ) Directly proportional to signal

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65) What is the major benefit of active immunotherapy over passive immunotherapy?

a. ) It is effective against all diseases

b. ) It does not involve the immune system

c. ) It provides lifelong immunity

d. ) It requires fewer doses

e. ) It works immediately

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66) Which of these diseases has been linked to a specific HLA-B allele?

a. ) Tuberculosis

b. ) Heart disease

c. ) HIV/AIDS

d. ) Celiac disease

e. ) Multiple sclerosis

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67) What do dendritic cells do in the immune response?

a. ) Produce antibodies

b. ) Directly kill pathogens

c. ) Degrade pathogens in lysosomes

d. ) Release histamine

e. ) Present antigens to T cells

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68) Which test uses light scattering to measure antigen-antibody complexes?

a. ) Western blot

b. ) ELISA

c. ) Flow cytometry

d. ) PCR

e. ) Turbidimetry

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69) What do Memory B cells do?

a. ) Recognize antigens from previous infections

b. ) Present antigens to T cells

c. ) Destroy pathogens

d. ) Suppress immune responses

e. ) Attack infected cells

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70) What does the “MHC” in MHC molecules stand for?

a. ) Molecular Histone Complex

b. ) Membrane Heterogeneity Complex

c. ) Major Histocompatibility Complex

d. ) Membrane Hemoglobin Complex

e. ) Major Hemoglobin Complex

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71) Which of the following is NOT a function of HLA molecules?

a. ) Activating immune responses

b. ) Regulating insulin production

c. ) Presenting foreign antigens

d. ) Facilitating immune recognition of pathogens

e. ) Maintaining self-tolerance

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72) Which of the following detects antigen-antibody interactions using latex beads?

a. ) Latex agglutination test

b. ) Immunochromatographic assay

c. ) ELISA

d. ) Flow cytometry

e. ) PCR

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73) Which organ is responsible for the production of all blood cells?

a. ) Liver

b. ) Bone marrow

c. ) Spleen

d. ) Thymus

e. ) Lymph nodes

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74) Which virus quantification test is used for influenza virus using red blood cells?

a. ) Hemagglutination assay

b. ) ELISA

c. ) qPCR

d. ) Western blot

e. ) Plaque assay

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75) Which of the following is a feature of HIV-2 compared to HIV-1?

a. ) HIV-2 is resistant to all treatments.

b. ) HIV-2 has a longer asymptomatic phase.

c. ) HIV-2 infects a broader range of cells.

d. ) HIV-2 is more easily transmitted.

e. ) HIV-2 causes AIDS more rapidly than HIV-1.

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76) Which HIV strain is most common worldwide?

a. ) HIV-2

b. ) HIV-3

c. ) HIV-4

d. ) HIV-1

e. ) HIV-5

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77) What is a common use of active immunotherapy in cancer treatment?

a. ) To neutralize toxins produced by cancer cells

b. ) To supply antibodies directly to the bloodstream

c. ) To stimulate the immune system to recognize and attack cancer cells

d. ) To directly kill cancer cells using monoclonal antibodies

e. ) To provide immediate immune support in cancer patients

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78) Lymph nodes contain large numbers of:

a. ) Cartilage cells

b. ) Neurons

c. ) Platelets

d. ) Red blood cells

e. ) White blood cells

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79) HLA Class II molecules are primarily found on which type of cells?

a. ) Red blood cells

b. ) Skin cells

c. ) Immune cells

d. ) Brain cells

e. ) Muscle cells

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80) Which of the following is a common opportunistic infection associated with AIDS?

a. ) Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection

b. ) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

c. ) Influenza

d. ) Measles

e. ) Hepatitis A

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81) What is the role of CD8+ T cells in HIV infection?

a. ) They directly kill HIV-infected cells.

b. ) They help activate CD4+ T cells.

c. ) They assist in the replication of HIV.

d. ) They produce antibodies against HIV.

e. ) They are the primary cells infected by HIV.

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82) What is the primary function of the immune system?

a. ) Produce energy

b. ) Protect the body from infections

c. ) Digest food

d. ) Transport oxygen

e. ) Regulate body temperature

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83) HLA molecules present antigens to T cells via which receptor?

a. ) T-cell receptor (TCR)

b. ) Fc receptor

c. ) Complement receptor

d. ) Toll-like receptor (TLR)

e. ) B-cell receptor (BCR)

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84) What type of immune cell directly attacks infected cells?

a. ) Helper T cells

b. ) B cells

c. ) Mast cells

d. ) Plasma cells

e. ) Cytotoxic T cells

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85) What is the final stage of an immune response?

a. ) Cytotoxic attack

b. ) Resolution and memory formation

c. ) Complement activation

d. ) Activation of B cells

e. ) Recognition of antigens

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86) Which part of the immune system produces antibodies?

a. ) Neutrophils

b. ) Macrophages

c. ) B cells

d. ) Natural killer cells

e. ) T cells

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87) Which type of immune cell does Class I HLA molecules present antigens to?

a. ) B cells

b. ) Natural killer cells

c. ) Dendritic cells

d. ) Helper T cells

e. ) Cytotoxic T cells

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88) Which immune cells are responsible for killing virus-infected cells?

a. ) Helper T cells

b. ) Macrophages

c. ) B cells

d. ) Cytotoxic T cells (CD8⁺)

e. ) Basophils

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89) The role of HLA in immune response is to:

a. ) Secrete antibodies

b. ) Present antigens to T cells

c. ) Produce cytokines

d. ) Prevent phagocytosis

e. ) Activate B cells directly

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90) Which of the following is a limitation of passive immunotherapy?

a. ) It can cause allergic reactions or immune responses against the antibodies

b. ) It provides long-term immunity

c. ) It stimulates the production of immune cells

d. ) It requires the patient’s immune system to be activated

e. ) It works best in patients with strong immune systems

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91) What is the primary role of macrophages?

a. ) Produce antibodies

b. ) Secrete histamines

c. ) Activate the complement system

d. ) Kill virus-infected cells

e. ) Engulf and digest pathogens

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92) Which immunoglobulin is the most abundant in the blood and extracellular fluid?

a. ) IgG

b. ) IgE

c. ) IgA

d. ) IgD

e. ) IgM

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93) Passive immunotherapy provides:

a. ) Immediate but short-lived immunity

b. ) A permanent cure for autoimmune diseases

c. ) A response that takes weeks to develop

d. ) Long-term immune memory

e. ) Complete protection against all infections

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94) Which of the following HLA molecules is a Class I molecule?

a. ) HLA-B

b. ) HLA-DRB1

c. ) HLA-DP

d. ) HLA-DR

e. ) HLA-DQ

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95) What is the primary function of antibodies in neutralization?

a. ) Bind to toxins or pathogens and prevent them from interacting with host cells

b. ) Release histamine

c. ) Activate cytotoxic T cells

d. ) Activate the complement system

e. ) Phagocytose pathogens

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96) What is the main function of Human Leukocyte Antigen (HLA)?

a. ) Regulating blood pressure

b. ) Carrying oxygen in the blood

c. ) Presenting antigens to immune cells

d. ) Storing genetic information

e. ) Producing hormones

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97) What is the main role of antibodies in the immune system?

a. ) Destroy infected cells

b. ) Phagocytose pathogens

c. ) Neutralize pathogens

d. ) Produce cytokines

e. ) Activate T cells

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98) The lectin pathway of the complement system is triggered by:

a. ) The binding of C1 to immune complexes

b. ) Spontaneous cleavage of C3

c. ) Activation of C3 by antibodies

d. ) Activation of C5

e. ) Mannose-binding lectin binding to pathogen surfaces

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99) Which assay is used to measure the number of infectious virus particles in a sample?

a. ) ELISA

b. ) Western blot

c. ) Hemagglutination assay

d. ) qPCR

e. ) Viral plaque assay

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100) Which immune cells are primarily involved in the clearance of pathogens during a viral infection?

a. ) T cells and B cells

b. ) Mast cells

c. ) Eosinophils

d. ) Macrophages and natural killer cells

e. ) Neutrophils

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101) What is the principle of ELISA?

a. ) Separation of proteins by electrophoresis

b. ) Detection of antigen-antibody complexes using an enzyme

c. ) Detection of nucleic acids

d. ) Measurement of light scattering

e. ) Use of radioisotopes to detect interactions

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102) Which type of antigen is presented by HLA Class II molecules?

a. ) Self-antigens

b. ) Tumor antigens

c. ) Lipids

d. ) Viral proteins

e. ) Extracellular bacterial peptides

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103) Which is the first antibody class produced in response to an infection?

a. ) IgM

b. ) IgG

c. ) IgD

d. ) IgA

e. ) IgE

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104) What happens during clonal selection?

a. ) Complement proteins destroy healthy cells

b. ) Macrophages engulf all foreign substances

c. ) B and T cells with receptors specific to an antigen are activated

d. ) Natural Killer (NK) cells suppress immune response

e. ) All immune cells attack randomly

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105) What does opsonization refer to in the immune system?

a. ) The killing of infected cells by cytotoxic T cells

b. ) The activation of T cell receptors

c. ) The destruction of pathogens by natural killer cells

d. ) The process by which antibodies enhance the ability of phagocytes to engulf pathogens

e. ) The production of memory cells

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106) The immune system consists mainly of which type of blood cells?

a. ) Stem cells

b. ) Platelets

c. ) Red blood cells

d. ) Plasma cells

e. ) White blood cells

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107) Which cell type is primarily involved in the adaptive immune response?

a. ) B cells

b. ) Eosinophils

c. ) Neutrophils

d. ) Macrophages

e. ) Natural killer cells

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108) Which of the following therapies is NOT considered an immunotherapy?

a. ) Checkpoint inhibitors

b. ) Chemotherapy

c. ) Monoclonal antibodies

d. ) Adoptive cell therapy

e. ) Cancer vaccines

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109) Which of the following antibodies is most commonly found in breast milk, helping protect infants?

a. ) IgG

b. ) IgM

c. ) IgA

d. ) IgD

e. ) IgE

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110) What is the main function of regulatory T cells (Tregs)?

a. ) Kill infected cells

b. ) Stimulate inflammation

c. ) Release histamine

d. ) Activate B cells

e. ) Suppress immune response

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111) Which test is used for confirmatory diagnosis of HIV?

a. ) Indirect ELISA

b. ) Hemagglutination test

c. ) Western blot

d. ) Rapid antigen test

e. ) PCR

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112) What type of immunity is transferred from mother to child via breast milk?

a. ) Passive natural

b. ) Passive artificial

c. ) Cell-mediated immunity

d. ) Active natural

e. ) Active artificial

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113) What is the function of Natural Killer (NK) cells?

a. ) Killing virus-infected cells

b. ) Presenting antigens

c. ) Stimulating B cells

d. ) Antibody production

e. ) Phagocytosis

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114) What is the main advantage of digital PCR (dPCR) over qPCR?

a. ) Requires less sample preparation

b. ) Less sensitive

c. ) More affordable

d. ) Faster processing

e. ) Absolute quantification of viral DNA/RNA

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115) Which type of cell is involved in killing virus-infected cells directly?

a. ) Cytotoxic T cells

b. ) Neutrophils

c. ) Macrophages

d. ) B cells

e. ) Helper T cells

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116) What is the major limitation of ELISA for viral quantification?

a. ) Very slow

b. ) Requires advanced equipment

c. ) Cannot differentiate live from dead virus

d. ) Cannot detect viral antigens

e. ) Only works for DNA viruses

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117) What does TCID₅₀ measure?

a. ) Virus concentration that infects 50% of cultured cells

b. ) Virus protein expression

c. ) Number of antibodies

d. ) Viral genome sequencing

e. ) Viral RNA copies

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118) The tonsils help protect against:

a. ) Bone diseases

b. ) Airborne pathogens

c. ) Digestive enzymes

d. ) Blood clotting disorders

e. ) High blood pressure

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119) What kind of immunity does a newborn receive from breast milk?

a. ) Passive natural immunity

b. ) Active natural immunity

c. ) Passive artificial immunity

d. ) Active artificial immunity

e. ) Innate immunity

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120) Where do T cells mature?

a. ) Liver

b. ) Thymus

c. ) Lymph nodes

d. ) Spleen

e. ) Bone marrow

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121) What is the primary target cell of HIV?

a. ) CD8+ T cells

b. ) Neutrophils

c. ) CD4+ T cells

d. ) B lymphocytes

e. ) Macrophages

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122) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of adaptive immunity?

a. ) Rapid response

b. ) Specificity for a particular pathogen

c. ) Involvement of T and B cells

d. ) Ability to recognize antigens

e. ) Memory

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123) Which of the following diseases is associated with specific HLA alleles?

a. ) Malaria

b. ) Common cold

c. ) Diabetes type 2

d. ) Rheumatoid arthritis

e. ) Asthma

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124) Which of the following diseases is associated with HLA-DR3?

a. ) Sickle cell anemia

b. ) Rheumatoid arthritis

c. ) Type 1 diabetes

d. ) Cystic fibrosis

125 / 286

125) Which test is commonly used for rapid antigen detection at the point of care?

a. ) Indirect ELISA

b. ) PCR

c. ) Western blot

d. ) Immunochromatographic assay

e. ) Turbidimetry

126 / 286

126) Which virus quantification method does NOT require cell culture?

a. ) TCID₅₀

b. ) ELISA

c. ) Plaque assay

d. ) Focus forming assay

e. ) qPCR

127 / 286

127) The complement system helps the immune system by:

a. ) Controlling heart rate

b. ) Attacking pathogens directly

c. ) Producing insulin

d. ) Breaking down fats

e. ) Synthesizing vitamins

128 / 286

128) Which molecule is used by T cells to recognize antigens?

a. ) Antibody

b. ) Complement

c. ) MHC

d. ) TCR (T cell receptor)

e. ) BCR (B cell receptor)

129 / 286

129) Which test detects antigen by immobilizing it between two antibodies?

a. ) Sandwich ELISA

b. ) Direct ELISA

c. ) Flow cytometry

d. ) RIA

e. ) Indirect ELISA

130 / 286

130) Which virus quantification method uses fluorescence microscopy?

a. ) Focus forming assay

b. ) Hemagglutination

c. ) TCID₅₀

d. ) Western blot

e. ) qPCR

131 / 286

131) How does the immune system typically respond to acute HIV infection?

a. ) With a strong, specific immune response that clears the virus

b. ) With an overwhelming inflammatory response

c. ) By producing no detectable antibodies

d. ) With a mild response that allows the virus to replicate easily

e. ) By completely shutting down immune activity

132 / 286

132) Which protein on the HIV virus binds to the CD4 receptor of host cells?

a. ) Protease

b. ) gp41

c. ) Integrase

d. ) gp120

e. ) Reverse transcriptase

133 / 286

133) Which of the following is NOT a function of the complement system?

a. ) Inflammation

b. ) Antibody production

c. ) Opsonization

d. ) Clearance of immune complexes

e. ) Cell lysis

134 / 286

134) Which of the following is NOT a complement-mediated disease?

a. ) Systemic lupus erythematosus

b. ) Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

c. ) Atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome

d. ) Chronic granulomatous disease

e. ) Hereditary angioedema

135 / 286

135) The final step in complement activation leads to:

a. ) Cytokine secretion

b. ) Inflammation

c. ) Antibody production

d. ) Phagocytosis

e. ) Membrane Attack Complex (MAC) formation

136 / 286

136) Which type of immunity is acquired after an infection?

a. ) Innate

b. ) Artificial

c. ) Adaptive

d. ) Autoimmune

e. ) Passive

137 / 286

137) Which complement pathway is primarily triggered by antigen-antibody complexes?

a. ) Non-classical pathway

b. ) Lectin pathway

c. ) Alternative pathway

d. ) Classical pathway

e. ) Terminal pathway

138 / 286

138) Which co-receptors does HIV use to enter host cells?

a. ) CD8 and CCR5

b. ) CCR5 and CD8

c. ) CCR5 and CXCR4

d. ) CCR7 and CD4

e. ) CD4 and CXCR4

139 / 286

139) What is the function of memory cells?

a. ) Regulate hormones

b. ) Remember past infections

c. ) Produce digestive enzymes

d. ) Form blood clots

e. ) Store genetic material

140 / 286

140) A key advantage of active immunotherapy is:

a. ) Short-term effectiveness

b. ) Generation of immune memory

c. ) No need for the immune system to respond

d. ) Immediate immune protection

e. ) It is only useful against bacterial infections

141 / 286

141) Which immune cell is responsible for phagocytosis?

a. ) Helper T cells

b. ) Plasma cells

c. ) Erythrocytes

d. ) B cells

e. ) Macrophages

142 / 286

142) Which of the following is a feature of IgG antibodies?

a. ) They are the least abundant in the blood

b. ) They are produced during the initial immune response

c. ) They are the most abundant in mucosal surfaces

d. ) They can cross the placenta to provide immunity to the fetus

e. ) They are involved in allergic reactions

143 / 286

143) How does the immune system respond to active immunotherapy?

a. ) It blocks the virus from replicating.

b. ) It activates T-cells and B-cells to respond to the pathogen or tumor.

c. ) It prevents the disease from entering the body.

d. ) It suppresses the body's immune response.

e. ) It produces ready-made antibodies for immediate use.

144 / 286

144) Which immune cells produce antibodies?

a. ) B cells

b. ) Platelets

c. ) Macrophages

d. ) Neutrophils

e. ) Cytotoxic T cells

145 / 286

145) What is the main purpose of antigen presentation by HLA molecules?

a. ) To form a protective barrier in tissues

b. ) To store energy in cells

c. ) To activate immune cells

d. ) To increase blood flow to tissues

e. ) To regulate body temperature

146 / 286

146) Which of the following diseases is most closely associated with C3 deficiency?

a. ) Recurrent bacterial infections

b. ) Atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome (aHUS)

c. ) Hereditary angioedema

d. ) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

e. ) Macular degeneration

147 / 286

147) What is the main purpose of convalescent plasma therapy?

a. ) To stimulate T-cell production

b. ) To provide specific antibodies against an infection

c. ) To generate an immune memory

d. ) To suppress autoimmunity

e. ) To deliver genetic material

148 / 286

148) Which test is used in blood typing?

a. ) Hemagglutination

b. ) Sandwich ELISA

c. ) Immunoblot

d. ) RIA

e. ) Nephelometry

149 / 286

149) Which of the following is a consequence of complement activation?

a. ) Suppression of inflammation

b. ) Decreased blood flow

c. ) Enhanced phagocytosis

d. ) Inhibition of B cells

e. ) Destruction of host cells

150 / 286

150) Which of the following is NOT a consequence of complement activation?

a. ) Inflammation

b. ) Lysis of target cells

c. ) Opsonization of pathogens

d. ) Formation of a clonal antibody response

e. ) Phagocytosis of pathogens

151 / 286

151) Which cytokine is most associated with HIV-induced immune activation?

a. ) TNF-alpha

b. ) IL-6

c. ) IL-4

d. ) IL-1

e. ) IL-2

152 / 286

152) Interferons are primarily involved in:

a. ) Virus defense

b. ) Bacterial infections

c. ) Producing antibodies

d. ) Breaking down carbohydrates

e. ) Blood clotting

153 / 286

153) What does the membrane attack complex (MAC) do?

a. ) Stimulates cytokine production

b. ) Activates B cells

c. ) Recruits neutrophils

d. ) Produces antibodies

e. ) Leads to the destruction of pathogens

154 / 286

154) In which of the following processes is HLA involved?

a. ) Oxygen transport

b. ) Immune response to pathogens

c. ) Digestion of food

d. ) Blood clotting

e. ) Regulation of body temperature

155 / 286

155) What happens during HIV’s “acute retroviral syndrome” (ARS)?

a. ) The immune system clears the virus completely.

b. ) There is a long asymptomatic period.

c. ) The individual experiences flu-like symptoms as the immune system responds.

d. ) HIV causes neurological damage.

e. ) The virus becomes dormant in the body.

156 / 286

156) Where does antigen presentation to T cells mainly occur?

a. ) Skin

b. ) Thymus

c. ) Bone marrow

d. ) Lymph nodes

e. ) Liver

157 / 286

157) Which of the following is NOT an antigen-detection test?

a. ) Hemagglutination

b. ) ELISA

c. ) Gram Staining

d. ) PCR

e. ) Western blot

158 / 286

158) Which test is widely used to confirm syphilis?

a. ) PCR

b. ) Western blot

c. ) RIA

d. ) Agglutination test

e. ) ELISA

159 / 286

159) Cytokines function as:

a. ) Antibodies

b. ) Structural proteins

c. ) Digestive enzymes

d. ) Signaling molecules in immune response

e. ) Hormones for growth

160 / 286

160) What is an allergen?

a. ) A harmless substance that triggers an immune response

b. ) A pathogen

c. ) A neurotransmitter

d. ) A type of virus

e. ) A blood clotting factor

161 / 286

161) HLA Class I molecules present antigens from which source?

a. ) Parasites

b. ) Fungi

c. ) Viruses and intracellular pathogens

d. ) Allergens

e. ) Extracellular bacteria

162 / 286

162) Which of the following cells does the complement system primarily target for destruction?

a. ) T lymphocytes

b. ) Red blood cells

c. ) Bacteria

d. ) Endothelial cells

e. ) Virus-infected cells

163 / 286

163) Which immune cells act as antigen-presenting cells (APCs)?

a. ) Eosinophils

b. ) Plasma cells

c. ) Macrophages

d. ) Natural killer cells

e. ) Mast cells

164 / 286

164) HLA polymorphism contributes to which characteristic of the immune system?

a. ) Blood clotting efficiency

b. ) Muscle strength

c. ) Antigenic diversity

d. ) Immune tolerance

e. ) Genetic similarity

165 / 286

165) Which of the following molecules is involved in the activation of cytotoxic T cells?

a. ) Complement proteins

b. ) IgE

c. ) MHC Class I

d. ) IgG

e. ) IgM

166 / 286

166) What is an example of a primary immunodeficiency?

a. ) Rheumatoid arthritis

b. ) Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID)

c. ) AIDS

d. ) Leukemia

e. ) Asthma

167 / 286

167) What type of virus is HIV classified as?

a. ) Retrovirus

b. ) Picornavirus

c. ) Herpesvirus

d. ) Flavivirus

e. ) Adenovirus

168 / 286

168) What is the normal range for CD4+ T cells in a healthy individual?

a. ) 0-200 cells/microliter

b. ) 1200-1500 cells/microliter

c. ) 500-1200 cells/microliter

d. ) 200-500 cells/microliter

e. ) 1500-2000 cells/microliter

169 / 286

169) What is an autoimmune response?

a. ) When T cells kill infected cells

b. ) When pathogens are neutralized by antibodies

c. ) When the immune system fails to respond to infections

d. ) When B cells are activated without an infection

e. ) When antibodies are produced against the body’s own cells

170 / 286

170) Which test can differentiate various protein bands?

a. ) Flow cytometry

b. ) Indirect ELISA

c. ) PCR

d. ) Western blot

e. ) Nephelometry

171 / 286

171) What is the first step in initiating an immune response?

a. ) Recognition of an antigen by immune cells

b. ) Activation of B cells

c. ) Memory cell formation

d. ) Production of antibodies

e. ) Activation of the complement system

172 / 286

172) Which of the following is true about haptens

a. ) They are always part of bacteria

b. ) They are large proteins that can act as antigens without a carrier

c. ) They are small molecules that can induce an immune response only when bound to larger molecules

d. ) They activate T cells directly without requiring a larger carrier molecule

e. ) They can only bind to IgE antibodies

173 / 286

173) Which of the following best describes HLA polymorphism?

a. ) Single allele dominance

b. ) One variant per population

c. ) No variation in genes

d. ) Multiple alleles in a population

e. ) HLA genes mutate frequently

174 / 286

174) Which of the following is a major concern for HIV-positive pregnant women?

a. ) Reduced viral load due to pregnancy hormones

b. ) Increased immunity to other diseases

c. ) Inability to breastfeed

d. ) Risk of transmitting HIV to the baby

e. ) Increased risk of autoimmune disease

175 / 286

175) Complement proteins are primarily produced by:

a. ) Neutrophils

b. ) Lymphocytes

c. ) Macrophages

d. ) Platelets

e. ) Liver cells

176 / 286

176) Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?

a. ) Influenza

b. ) Rheumatoid arthritis

c. ) HIV

d. ) Malaria

e. ) Tuberculosis

177 / 286

177) How are HLA genes inherited?

a. ) Through epigenetic modification

b. ) Only from the mother

c. ) Through both parents

d. ) Through mitochondrial DNA

e. ) Randomly, without parental influence

178 / 286

178) Which type of cell recognizes antigen presented on MHC Class I molecules?

a. ) CD8+ T cells

b. ) Dendritic cells

c. ) CD4+ T cells

d. ) B cells

e. ) Eosinophils

179 / 286

179) Which immunoglobulin is most effective at activating complement?

a. ) IgG

b. ) IgM

c. ) IgD

d. ) IgA

e. ) IgE

180 / 286

180) Which of the following is not a type of immunity?

a. ) Innate immunity

b. ) Adaptive immunity

c. ) Passive immunity

d. ) Artificial immunity

e. ) Metabolic immunity

181 / 286

181) Which cells act as Antigen-Presenting Cells (APCs)?

a. ) Cytotoxic T cells

b. ) Macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells

c. ) Plasma cells

d. ) Mast cells

e. ) Red blood cells

182 / 286

182) Which of the following tests is most commonly used to quantify antigens in a sample?

a. ) Direct ELISA

b. ) Western blot

c. ) PCR

d. ) Flow cytometry

e. ) Immunofluorescence

183 / 286

183) How are monoclonal antibodies produced?

a. ) By extracting plasma from vaccinated individuals

b. ) By using weakened bacteria

c. ) By cloning specific immune cells in a lab

d. ) By synthesizing proteins from viruses

e. ) By genetically modifying white blood cells

184 / 286

184) What is the main advantage of RIA over ELISA?

a. ) Lower sensitivity

b. ) No antigen-antibody reaction involved

c. ) Use of radioactive isotopes

d. ) Faster turnaround time

e. ) Requires simpler equipment

185 / 286

185) Which is a major advantage of active immunotherapy over passive immunotherapy?

a. ) Immediate protection

b. ) Requires less medical intervention

c. ) Short-term effect

d. ) Long-lasting immunity

e. ) Less expensive

186 / 286

186) What is an antigen?

a. ) A protein that activates TLRs

b. ) A molecule that neutralizes pathogens

c. ) A white blood cell

d. ) A component of the complement system

e. ) A protein that can induce an immune response

187 / 286

187) What is the main goal of active immunotherapy?

a. ) To replace damaged immune cells

b. ) To stimulate the body's own immune system

c. ) To use antibiotics to fight infections

d. ) To transfer pre-formed antibodies

e. ) To provide immediate immunity

188 / 286

188) Which of the following is NOT an example of an antigen?

a. ) Pollen from plants

b. ) Viral RNA

c. ) Tumor protein

d. ) Bacterial protein

e. ) Human DNA

189 / 286

189) The first line of defense in the immune system is:

a. ) Skin and mucous membranes

b. ) Antibodies

c. ) B cells

d. ) Macrophages

e. ) T cells

190 / 286

190) Which part of an antibody binds to an antigen?

a. ) Fc region

b. ) Variable region

c. ) Light chain

d. ) Constant region

e. ) Heavy chain

191 / 286

191) Which method is based on measuring virus-induced cell lysis?

a. ) Flow cytometry

b. ) PCR

c. ) Plaque assay

d. ) Focus forming assay

e. ) ELISA

192 / 286

192) What is the main enzyme that allows HIV to convert its RNA into DNA?

a. ) Reverse transcriptase

b. ) Integrase

c. ) Protease

d. ) RNA polymerase

e. ) DNA polymerase

193 / 286

193) What is the primary difference between MHC Class I and MHC Class II molecules?

a. ) MHC Class I presents antigens to helper T cells, while MHC Class II presents antigens to cytotoxic T cells

b. ) MHC Class I is found on all nucleated cells, while MHC Class II is found only on antigen- presenting cells

c. ) MHC Class I is involved in autoimmune responses

d. ) MHC Class I presents extracellular antigens, while MHC Class II presents intracellular antigens

e. ) MHC Class I activates B cells, while MHC Class II activates T cells

194 / 286

194) Which test detects antigen-antibody interactions by visual clumping?

a. ) PCR

b. ) RIA

c. ) Agglutination test

d. ) ELISA

e. ) Flow cytometry

195 / 286

195) Which of the following best defines active immunotherapy?

a. ) Immediate immune protection

b. ) Treatment with antivenom

c. ) Administration of pre-made antibodies

d. ) Temporary immunity

e. ) The body produces its own immune response

196 / 286

196) The function of C3 convertase is to:

a. ) Directly lyse pathogens

b. ) Initiate cytokine release

c. ) Convert C3 into C3a and C3b

d. ) Activate CD8+ T cells

e. ) Inhibit complement activation

197 / 286

197) Which of the following is not a lymphoid organ?

a. ) Lymph nodes

b. ) Pancreas

c. ) Thymus

d. ) Bone marrow

e. ) Spleen

198 / 286

198) What is the final stage of the immune response?

a. ) Inflammation

b. ) Resolution

c. ) Recognition

d. ) Memory formation

e. ) Activation

199 / 286

199) What is the function of histamines in an allergic response?

a. ) Activate B cells

b. ) Increase vascular permeability

c. ) Reduce inflammation

d. ) Stimulate memory cells

e. ) Destroy antigens

200 / 286

200) What is the relationship between HLA and autoimmune diseases?

a. ) HLA genes prevent autoimmune diseases

b. ) HLA does not affect autoimmune diseases

c. ) HLA alleles can increase susceptibility to autoimmune diseases

d. ) HLA genes are unrelated to immunity

e. ) HLA directly causes autoimmune diseases

201 / 286

201) Which of the following is NOT a form of passive immunotherapy?

a. ) Monoclonal antibody therapy

b. ) mRNA vaccines

c. ) Convalescent plasma therapy

d. ) Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG)

e. ) Administration of antitoxins

202 / 286

202) Natural Killer (NK) cells are part of the:

a. ) Digestive system

b. ) Nervous system

c. ) Adaptive immune system

d. ) Innate immune system

e. ) Circulatory system

203 / 286

203) Antibodies are also called:

a. ) Neutrophils

b. ) Toxins

c. ) Cytokines

d. ) Immunoglobulins

e. ) Macrophages

204 / 286

204) The major difference between innate and adaptive immunity is:

a. ) The speed of response

b. ) The involvement of B cells

c. ) The specificity of the response

d. ) The involvement of antibodies

e. ) The involvement of cytokines

205 / 286

205) How is the classical complement pathway activated?

a. ) Interaction with T cells

b. ) Direct recognition of bacteria

c. ) Spontaneous activation on pathogen surfaces

d. ) Mannose-binding lectin (MBL) binding

e. ) Antigen-antibody complex formation

206 / 286

206) Which of the following is a characteristic of C3 deficiency?

a. ) Hereditary angioedema

b. ) Decreased serum C4 levels

c. ) Recurrent infections with encapsulated bacteria

d. ) Inflammatory bowel disease

e. ) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

207 / 286

207) Which complement protein is responsible for opsonizing pathogens?

a. ) C2

b. ) C5a

c. ) C3b

d. ) CD59

e. ) C1q

208 / 286

208) What is a key advantage of PCR over antigen detection?

a. ) Slower processing time

b. ) Less technical expertise needed

c. ) Detects antibodies

d. ) Lower cost

e. ) Higher specificity

209 / 286

209) Which HLA class is involved in organ transplant compatibility?

a. ) None of the above

b. ) Both Class I and Class II

c. ) Class II

d. ) Class I

e. ) Class III

210 / 286

210) What is the function of Class II HLA molecules?

a. ) Bind to insulin

b. ) Form red blood cells

c. ) Present antigens to helper T cells

d. ) Regulate blood sugar levels

e. ) Present antigens to cytotoxic T cells

211 / 286

211) Which type of MHC molecule presents antigens to CD4+ T cells?

a. ) TLRs

b. ) MHC Class II

c. ) Complement proteins

d. ) BCRs

e. ) MHC Class I

212 / 286

212) Which molecule presents antigens to T cells?

a. ) Cytokines

b. ) Major histocompatibility complex (MHC)

c. ) Histamines

d. ) Antibodies

e. ) Chemokines

213 / 286

213) Which of the following statements is true about IgA antibodies?

a. ) They are found primarily in the blood

b. ) They are found primarily in mucosal areas like the respiratory and digestive tracts

c. ) They are the first antibodies produced in an immune response

d. ) They are involved in allergic reactions

e. ) They activate the complement system

214 / 286

214) Which of the following is true regarding the alternative pathway of the complement system?

a. ) It is dependent on C1 esterase inhibitor

b. ) It requires antibodies to activate

c. ) It is constantly active at low levels

d. ) It only activates in response to bacterial pathogens

e. ) It directly activates C5

215 / 286

215) Which immune molecule is primarily responsible for forming a protective barrier in mucosal tissues?

a. ) IgG

b. ) IgA

c. ) IgM

d. ) IgE

e. ) C3b

216 / 286

216) What is the primary function of antibodies in adaptive immunity?

a. ) Destroying infected cells directly

b. ) Activating phagocytes

c. ) Inducing inflammation

d. ) Neutralizing toxins and pathogens

e. ) Generating memory cells

217 / 286

217) What is a key characteristic of adaptive immunity?

a. ) Physical barriers

b. ) Immunological memory

c. ) Non-specific defense

d. ) Inflammation

e. ) Immediate response

218 / 286

218) What is the main function of a secondary antibody in indirect ELISA?

a. ) Binding to primary antibodies

b. ) Enhancing fluorescence

c. ) Binding to a membrane

d. ) Detecting nucleic acids

e. ) Directly binding the antigen

219 / 286

219) Which test is used for next-generation sequencing (NGS) of viruses?

a. ) Hemagglutination

b. ) ELISA

c. ) PCR

d. ) Nanopore sequencing

e. ) Plaque assay

220 / 286

220) Which immune cells first recognize pathogens?

a. ) Natural Killer (NK) cells

b. ) Plasma cells

c. ) T cells

d. ) B cells

e. ) Antigen-presenting cells (APCs)

221 / 286

221) What type of T cell is activated by MHC-I molecules?

a. ) Cytotoxic T cells (CD8⁺)

b. ) B cells

c. ) Helper T cells (CD4⁺)

d. ) Plasma cells

e. ) Neutrophils

222 / 286

222) What is the main characteristic of an antigen?

a. ) It is produced by the body

b. ) It induces an immune response

c. ) It is always harmful

d. ) It neutralizes pathogens

e. ) It is a type of antibody

223 / 286

223) What is a major risk of passive immunotherapy?

a. ) Antibody rejection or allergic reactions

b. ) Immune suppression

c. ) Overproduction of white blood cells

d. ) Increased risk of genetic mutation

e. ) Autoimmune response

224 / 286

224) Which is an example of an autoimmune disease associated with HLA?

a. ) Tuberculosis

b. ) Pneumonia

c. ) Lupus

d. ) Cholera

e. ) Influenza

225 / 286

225) What do Helper T cells (CD4⁺) release to activate other immune cells?

a. ) Antibodies

b. ) Lysozymes

c. ) Histamines

d. ) Perforins

e. ) Cytokines

226 / 286

226) What process allows antibodies to mark pathogens for destruction?

a. ) Opsonization

b. ) Inflammation

c. ) Agglutination

d. ) Neutralization

e. ) Phagocytosis

227 / 286

227) What happens if C3 is completely deficient?

a. ) Increased cytokine production

b. ) Increased susceptibility to viral infections

c. ) Deficient phagocytosis and increased bacterial infections

d. ) No effect on immunity

e. ) Enhanced T-cell activity

228 / 286

228) hat initiates the classical pathway of the complement system?

a. ) Antigen-antibody complexes

b. ) Spontaneous activation of C3

c. ) Binding of mannan-binding lectin to carbohydrates

d. ) Release of histamine

e. ) Factor D activation

229 / 286

229) Which antibody is the first responder in an infection?

a. ) IgE

b. ) IgM

c. ) IgD

d. ) IgA

e. ) IgG

230 / 286

230) What is the role of memory B cells in adaptive immunity?

a. ) Produce antibodies during the initial immune response

b. ) Present antigens to helper T cells

c. ) Activate cytotoxic T cells

d. ) Carry out phagocytosis of pathogens

e. ) Provide long-term immunity by responding to future infections

231 / 286

231) What does the HLA system help to distinguish between?

a. ) Oxygen-rich and oxygen-poor blood

b. ) Friendly and harmful bacteria

c. ) Human and non-human cells

d. ) Normal and tumor cells

e. ) Different types of viruses

232 / 286

232) Which of the following is an example of passive immunotherapy?

a. ) Immune checkpoint inhibitors

b. ) Rituximab (monoclonal antibody)

c. ) HPV vaccine

d. ) Cancer vaccines

e. ) CAR-T cell therapy

233 / 286

233) Which of the following HLA alleles is commonly associated with the risk of developing Type 1 diabetes?

a. ) HLA-DR3

b. ) HLA-B27

c. ) HLA-A2

d. ) HLA-DQ6

e. ) HLA-DRB1

234 / 286

234) Which of the following is not an antibody type?

a. ) IgE

b. ) IgA

c. ) IgX

d. ) IgM

e. ) IgG

235 / 286

235) What is the function of memory B cells?

a. ) Activate helper T cells

b. ) Recognize and bind antigens

c. ) Persist in the body to respond to future infections by the same pathogen

d. ) Directly kill infected cells

e. ) Produce antibodies during the first exposure to an antigen

236 / 286

236) Which of the following diseases is commonly treated with monoclonal antibodies?

a. ) Malaria

b. ) Diabetes

c. ) Rheumatoid arthritis

d. ) Tuberculosis

e. ) Influenza

237 / 286

237) Which of the following is a key characteristic of T helper cells?

a. ) Detect intracellular pathogens

b. ) Help activate other immune cells via cytokine release

c. ) Phagocytose pathogens

d. ) Produce antibodies

e. ) Directly kill infected cells

238 / 286

238) The presence of which molecule indicates a primary immune response to an infection?

a. ) IgA

b. ) IgG

c. ) IgE

d. ) IgD

e. ) IgM

239 / 286

239) What is an epitope?

a. ) A type of antibody

b. ) A protein that activates the immune system

c. ) A molecule produced by helper T cells

d. ) A receptor on B cells

e. ) A part of an antigen that is recognized by antibodies or T cells

240 / 286

240) Which immunotherapy is most commonly used for allergies?

a. ) Chemotherapy

b. ) Monoclonal antibody therapy

c. ) Vaccination

d. ) Allergen immunotherapy (desensitization)

e. ) Antihistamines

241 / 286

241) Which of the following best describes the function of the “constant region” of an antibody?

a. ) It determines the antibody's isotype (IgA, IgG, etc.)

b. ) It activates T cells

c. ) It binds to the antigen

d. ) It increases the specificity of the antibody

e. ) It neutralizes toxins

242 / 286

242) Which test is preferred for quantifying immunoglobulin levels?

a. ) Nephelometry

b. ) Western blot

c. ) RIA

d. ) ELISA

e. ) PCR

243 / 286

243) Which type of ELISA is most useful for detecting small molecules like hormones?

a. ) Competitive

b. ) Indirect

c. ) Sandwich

d. ) Direct

e. ) None of the above

244 / 286

244) What type of cells express Class I HLA molecules?

a. ) Only muscle cells

b. ) Only kidney cells

c. ) Most nucleated cells

d. ) Only immune cells

e. ) Only red blood cells

245 / 286

245) What triggers the primary immune response?

a. ) Exposure to a new pathogen or antigen

b. ) Release of cytokines by T cells

c. ) Exposure to a pathogen for the second time

d. ) Natural killer cell activity

e. ) Activation of memory B cells

246 / 286

246) What is a major risk of mismatched HLA molecules in organ transplants?

a. ) Decreased immunity

b. ) Infections

c. ) Increased blood pressure

d. ) Rejection of the transplanted organ

e. ) Tumor formation

247 / 286

247) What is the role of fluorescent probes in qPCR?

a. ) Measure viral proteins

b. ) Detect and quantify viral nucleic acids

c. ) Increase sample volume

d. ) Visualize infected cells

e. ) Bind to antibodies

248 / 286

248) What is the primary structure that defines the antigen-binding site of an antibody?

a. ) Heavy chain

b. ) Variable region

c. ) Fc region

d. ) Light chain

e. ) Constant region

249 / 286

249) Which of the following quantifies viral genome copies per milliliter of blood?

a. ) Plaque assay

b. ) qPCR

c. ) Hemagglutination

d. ) ELISA

e. ) Western blot

250 / 286

250) Which of the following is NOT an opportunistic infection associated with AIDS?

a. ) Herpes simplex virus reactivation

b. ) Tuberculosis

c. ) Candida albicans infection

d. ) Rheumatic fever

e. ) Pneumocystis pneumonia

251 / 286

251) Which complement component is cleaved into C3a and C3b?

a. ) C5

b. ) Factor D

c. ) C4

d. ) C3

e. ) C1

252 / 286

252) Which of the following is the most likely outcome in a person with an undetectable viral load after long-term ART treatment?

a. ) Development of AIDS

b. ) Uncontrolled viral replication

c. ) Infection of CD8+ T cells

d. ) Immune system recovery

e. ) Complete eradication of HIV

253 / 286

253) Which class of HLA molecules presents antigens to cytotoxic T cells?

a. ) Class III

b. ) Class I

c. ) Class IV

d. ) Class II

e. ) Class V

254 / 286

254) What does ART stand for in the context of HIV treatment?

a. ) Acute Retroviral Treatment

b. ) Antibody Recombination Therapy

c. ) Antiretroviral Therapy

d. ) Anti-Retrovirus Therapy

e. ) Active Reverse Therapy

255 / 286

255) Which test would be used for detecting autoimmune disorders?

a. ) PCR

b. ) ELISA

c. ) RIA

d. ) Hemagglutination

e. ) Flow cytometry

256 / 286

256) Which of the following is a characteristic of innate immunity?

a. ) Fast response

b. ) Specific response

c. ) Recognition of specific antigens

d. ) Memory formation

e. ) Activation of T cells

257 / 286

257) What is the role of dendritic cells?

a. ) Produce antibodies

b. ) Suppress immune responses

c. ) Activate the complement system

d. ) Directly kill pathogens

e. ) Act as antigen-presenting cells (APCs)

258 / 286

258) What is the role of CD4+ T cells in adaptive immunity?

a. ) Present antigens to B cells

b. ) Produce cytokines that help activate other immune cells

c. ) Directly kill infected cells

d. ) Recognize antigens on MHC Class I

e. ) Destroy pathogens through phagocytosis

259 / 286

259) What happens when a T cell receptor binds to its specific antigen on MHC molecules?

a. ) It induces apoptosis of the infected cell

b. ) It promotes phagocytosis of the antigen

c. ) It stimulates antibody production

d. ) It activates the complement system

e. ) It initiates T cell activation and differentiation

260 / 286

260) Which component initiates the lectin pathway?

a. ) Mannose-binding lectin (MBL)

b. ) Properdin

c. ) Factor B

d. ) C5b

e. ) C1q

261 / 286

261) Which of the following is responsible for forming the Membrane Attack Complex (MAC)?

a. ) C3a and C5a

b. ) Factor H

c. ) C2 and C4

d. ) C5-C9

e. ) C1q

262 / 286

262) Which of the following is NOT a function of the complement system?

a. ) T cell activation

b. ) Inflammation

c. ) Opsonization

d. ) Lysis of pathogens

e. ) Phagocytosis of pathogens

263 / 286

263) What does RIA stand for?

a. ) Reactive Immunoassay

b. ) Reverse Immunoassay

c. ) Radioimmunoassay

d. ) Recombinant Immunoassay

e. ) Rapid Immunoassay

264 / 286

264) What is the primary role of TLRs (Toll-like receptors) in innate immunity?

a. ) Producing inflammatory cytokines

b. ) Detecting PAMPs (pathogen-associated molecular patterns)

c. ) Inducing apoptosis

d. ) Activating B cells

e. ) Promoting antibody production

265 / 286

265) Which of the following is part of the innate immune response?

a. ) Activation of T cells

b. ) Memory cell formation

c. ) Phagocytosis by macrophages

d. ) Antibody production

e. ) Clonal selection of B cells

266 / 286

266) What is the characteristic feature of the secondary immune response?

a. ) It is stronger and faster than the primary response

b. ) It involves only IgM antibodies

c. ) It is slower than the primary response

d. ) It does not involve memory cells

e. ) It involves a higher number of neutrophils

267 / 286

267) Which organ clears complement immune complexes?

a. ) Kidneys

b. ) Heart

c. ) Brain

d. ) Pancreas

e. ) Spleen

268 / 286

268) Which type of HIV test is commonly used to monitor viral load?

a. ) Skin test

b. ) PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)

c. ) Rapid antibody test

d. ) Western blot

e. ) ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay)

269 / 286

269) What type of immune response involves HLA molecules?

a. ) Innate immunity

b. ) Both innate and adaptive immunity

c. ) Adaptive immunity

d. ) Passive immunity

270 / 286

270) What chromosome contains the genes for the HLA system?

a. ) Chromosome 21

b. ) Chromosome 10

c. ) Chromosome 1

d. ) Chromosome 12

e. ) Chromosome 6

271 / 286

271) What is the main purpose of a positive control in an ELISA test?

a. ) To ensure test validity

b. ) To measure enzyme activity

c. ) To detect antibodies

d. ) To amplify DNA

e. ) To remove background noise

272 / 286

272) What is the primary advantage of RT-LAMP over qPCR?

a. ) Lower specificity

b. ) Uses radioactivity

c. ) Requires a thermal cycler

d. ) Faster and simpler operation

e. ) Higher accuracy

273 / 286

273) What is opsonization?

a. ) Direct pathogen killing

b. ) T-cell activation

c. ) Antibody production

d. ) Immune suppression

e. ) Marking pathogens for phagocytosis

274 / 286

274) What is the viral load in an untreated person with AIDS typically associated with?

a. ) High replication rate of HIV

b. ) Low viral replication

c. ) Complete viral suppression

d. ) High immune function

e. ) Viral clearance

275 / 286

275) Which test requires a fluorescence microscope for result interpretation?

a. ) Hemagglutination test

b. ) Immunofluorescence assay

c. ) Western blot

d. ) PCR

e. ) ELISA

276 / 286

276) What happens after a B cell is activated?

a. ) It becomes a macrophage

b. ) It becomes a cytotoxic T cell

c. ) It undergoes apoptosis

d. ) It secretes cytokines

e. ) It differentiates into plasma cells

277 / 286

277) What type of antibody is often used in passive immunotherapy?

a. ) IgM antibodies

b. ) Monoclonal antibodies

c. ) Polyclonal antibodies

d. ) Natural antibodies

e. ) Memory antibodies

278 / 286

278) What is the primary mechanism of action of passive immunotherapy?

a. ) Boosting the production of immune cells

b. ) Directly providing antibodies or immune cells

c. ) Inhibiting viral replication

d. ) Enhancing the immune system's ability to recognize pathogens

e. ) Stimulating the immune system to produce antibodies

279 / 286

279) What is the main goal of passive immunotherapy in treating infections like COVID-19?

a. ) To provide immediate immune protection through the use of antibodies

b. ) To increase the body’s natural immune response

c. ) To activate memory cells in the immune system

d. ) To stimulate the production of immune cells

e. ) To enhance the body's ability to produce its own antibodies

280 / 286

280) What is the advantage of Western blot over ELISA?

a. ) Faster results

b. ) Higher specificity

c. ) More quantitative data

d. ) Requires less equipment

e. ) Uses fluorescence instead of enzymes

281 / 286

281) How do cytotoxic T cells kill infected cells?

a. ) By engulfing them

b. ) By producing antibodies

c. ) By releasing perforins and granzymes

d. ) By presenting antigens

e. ) By activating neutrophils

282 / 286

282) What is the primary function of neutrophils?

a. ) Antigen presentation

b. ) Suppressing inflammation

c. ) Stimulating B cells

d. ) Engulfing pathogens (phagocytosis)

e. ) Antibody production

283 / 286

283) hich class of drugs is commonly used in antiretroviral therapy (ART) to inhibit reverse transcription?

a. ) Protease inhibitors

b. ) Integrase inhibitors

c. ) Fusion inhibitors

d. ) Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

e. ) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

284 / 286

284) Which is a characteristic of the humoral immune response?

a. ) Involves the activation of cytotoxic T cells

b. ) Involves the destruction of infected cells

c. ) Involves the activation of macrophages

d. ) Involves the production of antibodies by B cells

285 / 286

285) What is the function of the Fc region of an antibody?

a. ) Bind to T cell receptors

b. ) Activate macrophages

c. ) Bind to the complement system or immune cells

d. ) Bind to the antigen

e. ) Neutralize toxins

286 / 286

286) Which of the following is NOT a type of PRR (pattern recognition receptor)?

a. ) TLRs

b. ) RLRs

c. ) MHC molecules

d. ) Scavenger receptors

e. ) NLRs

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