Oral Biology Test

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Oral Biology Test

1 / 60

Regarding deglutition:

a. Co-ordinated reflex

b. Inspiration cessation

c. Soft palate moves upward

d. Contraction of cricopharyngeal

2 / 60

In patient with reduced salivary flow the carious incidence is:

a. All of are corrected

b. More than the patient with normal salivary flow

c. Less than the patient with normal salivary flow

d. Unaffected

3 / 60

The palate is derived from three primordia:

a. An median palatine process and a pair of lateral palatine processes

b. 3rd branchial arch

c. Fronto- nasal process

d. Lateral nasal process

4 / 60

The maxillary processes:

a. Form the entire upper lip

b. Are derived from the first pharyngeal arch

c. Form the primary palate

d. Are covered with endoderm

5 / 60

The ectomesenchymal cell condensation just beneath the enamel organ is called:

a. Dental follicle

b. pulp

c. Dental sac

d. Dental papilla

6 / 60

The dental sac plays an important role in the formation of all of the following except:

a. Alveolar bone proper

b. Periodontal ligament

c. Cementum

d. Dentin of the root

7 / 60

The Hertwing’s epithelial root sheath is composed of:

a. Inner enamel epithelium and stratum intermedium

b. Outer enamel epithelium and stellate reticulum

c. Outer enamel epithelium and inner enamel epithelium

d. Stellate reticulum and stratum intermedium

8 / 60

The soft palate develops from:

a. Medial nasal process

b. Primary palate

c. Palatal processes fused with the nasal septum

d. Palatal processes which are not fused with nasal septum

9 / 60

The papillae that is projections on the tongue called:

a. Fungiform papillae

b. Circumvallate papillae

c. Filiform papillae

d. All are corrected

10 / 60

The function of the inner enamel epithelium is:

a. Lays down dentin matrix

b. Provides the enamel organs with alkaline phosphatase

c. Protects the enamel after eruption

d. Exerts organization influence on the dental papilla cells

11 / 60

The taste sensations appear to be located from the parts of:

a. The mouth's entire surface

b. The mouth containing taste buds

c. The mouth containing functioning taste buds

d. The mouth containing functioning taste buds that connect to sensory nerves

12 / 60

Taste Buds are located:

a. Epiglottis of the larynx, pharynx,

b. Most on the tongue

c. Soft palate, inner surface of the cheeks

d. All are corrected

13 / 60

The density of taste buds is highest:

a. At infancy

b. Around age 40

c. Around age 65

d. In the teen years

14 / 60

Calcified tissues of the tooth are derived from:

a. Endoderm only

b. Ectoderm only

c. Mesoderm only

d. Ectoderm and Mesoderm

15 / 60

Enamel pearls occur in:

a. Furcation area of molars

b. Apical third of molars roots

c. Cervical third of molars roots

d. Furcation area of premolars

16 / 60

All of the following is part of the tooth germ except:

a. Enamel organ

b. Dental papilla

c. Dental lamina

d. Dental follicle

17 / 60

The last hard dental tissue to be deposited is:

a. Outer layers of cementum

b. Primary dentin

c. Enamel

d. Mantle dentin

18 / 60

The mesenchymal cells lying adjacent to the inner enamel epithelium:

a. Differentiate into odontoblasts

b. Differentiate into ameloblasts

c. Become markedly folded

d. Are under the influence of stellate reticulum

19 / 60

Dental lamina is formed when:

a. The embryo is 4weeks old

b. The embryo is 5weeks old

c. The embryo is 6weeks old

d. The embryo is 3weeks old

20 / 60

The extrinsic muscles of the tongue are supplied by:

a. Hypoglossal nerve

b. Lingual nerve

c. Trigeminal nerve

d. Facial nerve

21 / 60

All of the following anomalies of the head and neck, except

a. Branchial cysts result from persistence of remnants of the second pharyngeal groove and the cervical sinus

b. A branchial fistula refers to a canal that has both an internal and external opening such as the side of the neck

c. Branchial sinuses result from failure of the second pharyngeal groove and cervical sinus to obliterate

d. Branchial fistulas result from persistence of the first pharyngeal membrane and the second pharyngeal groove

22 / 60

Miller put forth the acidogenic theory of dental caries in the year:

a. 1924

b. 1920

c. 1980

d. 1890

23 / 60

The origin of enamel is:

a. Ectomesenchyme

b. Ectoderm

c. Endoderm

d. Mesoderm

24 / 60

One of the following occurs during the pre-eruptive phase of a tooth:

a. Differentiation of the stratum intermedium

b. Maturation of enamel

c. Formation of the dental sac

d. Formation of stellate reticulum

25 / 60

The dental sac is:

a. The condensation of the ectomesenchymal cells surrounding Enamel organ

b. The condensation of the ectomesenchymal cells surrounding dental papilla

c. All are corrected

d. The condensation of the ectomesenchymal cells surrounding the enamel organ and dental papilla

26 / 60

The development of secondary palate begins from:

a. 4-5 WIU

b. 3-4 WIU

c. 6-9 WIU

d. 15-16 WIU

27 / 60

The Stomodeum is lined by:

a. Endoderm

b. Endoderm and Mesoderm

c. Ectoderm

d. Mesoderm

28 / 60

The most likely factor responsible for tooth eruption is:

a. Vascular pressure

b. The growing root

c. The developing periodontal ligament

d. Bone growth

29 / 60

Advanced bell stage of tooth development refers to:

a. Histodifferentiation, morphodifferentiation

b. Mesenchymal condensation

c. Apposition of dental tissues

d. Initiation and Proliferation

30 / 60

The cap stage occurs between the:

a. Thirteenth and fourteenth week of prenatal development

b. Ninth and tenth week of prenatal development

c. Sixteenth and seventeenth week of prenatal development

d. Eleventh and twelfth week of prenatal development

31 / 60

Odontoblasts start their secretory activity:

a. Before enamel matrix production

b. After enamel matrix production

c. During enamel matrix production

d. During and after enamel matrix production

32 / 60

The apposition stage of tooth development begins:

a. The enamel, cementum and dentin are secreted in layers

b. The root of the tooth begins to develop

c. The first layer of dentine is deposited

d. When the first layer of enamel lay down

33 / 60

First stage of deglutition is:

a. The lip and buccal muscles help keep bolus from dispersing

b. Voluntary and initiate deglutition process

c. A mass of chewed, moistened food, a bolus, is moved to the back of the oral cavity by the tongue

d. All are corrected

34 / 60

An oblique facial cleft is the result of:

a. Abnormal fusion of the two frontonasal processes

b. Excessive proliferation of the lateral nasal processes

c. Incomplete or complete lack of fusion of the lateral nasal processes and the maxillary swelling

d. Fusion of the maxillary and mandibular swellings unilaterally

35 / 60

One of the following is true about ankylosis:

a. Is a bony union between the alveolar bone and the roots of teeth

b. The active eruption of an ankylosed tooth continues

c. Ankylosed teeth do not show Howship's lacunae on the root

d. Is a union of the tooth with the periodontal ligament

36 / 60

Functions of the digestive system are:

a. All are corrected

b. Undigested food products

c. Absorption of nutrients, mastication

d. Prehension, ingestion, deglutition

37 / 60

The cranial nerve supplies to muscles of mastication is:

a. V (trigeminal)

b. VII (facial)

c. III (oculomotor)

d. X (vagus)

38 / 60

The dental lamina initiating the permanent molars develops:

a. As vestibular lamina

b. As a distal extension of the dental lamina

c. As successional lamina

d. As lateral dental lamina

39 / 60

The extrinsic muscles of the tongue:

a. Develop from tuberculum impar

b. Develop from the maxillary process

c. Develop from occipital myotomes

d. Develop from the second branchial arch

40 / 60

Taste buds contain:

a. Papillae

b. Olfactory receptors

c. All of are corrected

d. Microvilli

41 / 60

All the statement about early dental development, except:

a. The transition from cap stage to bell stage is particularly marked by the full differentiation of stellate reticulum

b. Cap stage is accomplished by unequal growth in different parts

c. The dental papilla and the dental sac develop in the cap stage

d. In the cap stage the inner and outer enamel epithelial cells are completely alike

42 / 60

After ovulation the ovum can be fertilized for about:

a. 5-10 hours

b. 24-48 hours

c. 1-3 hours

d. More than 48 hours

e. 4-20 hours

43 / 60

The major component of dental plaque is:

a. Salivary contents

b. Desquamated epithelial cells

c. Materia alba, lactic acid

d. Microorganism

44 / 60

Passive eruption is:

a. Growth in the length of the root

b. The formation of cellular cementum

c. Apical migration of the junctional epithelium

d. Deposition of bone at the fundus

45 / 60

Cells responsible for repair and regeneration consist of?

a. Mesenchymal cells and Parenchymal cells of the injury organs

b. Endothelial cells and Platelets

c. Macrophages

d. Platelets

e. All of above

46 / 60

The disadvantage of mesenchymal stem cells is that this stem cells are heterogenous in nature which hard to purify.?

a. False

b. True

47 / 60

Non-marrow origin mesenchymal stem cells EXCLUDE ?

a. Dental pulp

b. Placenta, and umbilical cord blood

c. Embryo

d. Adipose, and muscle

48 / 60

Who are/ is the pioneer of generating iPSc?

a. Prof. Shinya Yamanak and his wife

b. Prof. Shinya Yamanaka

c. Prof. Shinya Yamanaka and his students

d. Prof. Shinya Yamanaka and Sir John Gurdon

49 / 60

A,growth factor is a naturally occurring substance capable of stimulating cellular growth, proliferation, healing, and cellular differentiation. Usually it is a protein or a steroid hormone.?

a. True

b. False

50 / 60

What are the gold standard transcription factors using for generating iPSc?

a. Oct4, Sox2, Nanog, Lin28

b. Oct2, Sox4, Klf4, Lin28

c. Oct4, Sox2, Klf4, C-Myc

d. Oct4, Sox4, Nanog, Lin28Oct4, Sox4, Nanog, Lin28Oct4, Sox4, Nanog, Lin28

51 / 60

Transcription factor sometimes is called sequence-specific DNA-binding factor.?

a. True

b. False

52 / 60

A specific sequence of DNA that a transcription factor binds to?

a. Response element

b. Transcription

c. Transcription factor

d. Transcriptional regulation

e. Gene expression

53 / 60

The biggest concern of using iPSc as a regenerative tool is the possible of cancer provoke due to infection of transcription factors.?

a. False

b. True

54 / 60

Mesenchymal stem cells have been confirmed able to differentiated into neuron cell with function?

a. True

b. False

55 / 60

Stem cell hierarchy from top to bottom?

a. Totipotent, multipotent, pluripotent, unipotent

b. Totipotent, pluripotent, unipotent, multipotent

c. Unipotent, multipotent, pluripotent, totipotent

d. Unipotent, pluripotent, multipotent, totipotent

e. Totipotent, pluripotent, multipotent, unipotent

56 / 60

Growth factor responsible for repair and regeneration: EGF, Epithermal growth factor?

a. Tissue repair, cell growth, and collagen products.

b. Growth and new generation of keratinocyte

c. Growth and new generation of endovascular epithelial cells

d. Cell growth, new generation and repair of blood vessel, and collagen product

e. Promotion of epithelial cell growth, angiogenesis, and promotion of wound healing

57 / 60

iPSc provided unlimited supplies of ________ cells could be used to generate transplants without the risk of immune rejection.?

a. Autologous

b. Allogous

c. Xenologous

58 / 60

What is the biggest conflict of using embryonic stem cells?

a. Cell source

b. Ethic

c. Price and outcome

d. Market

59 / 60

Upon introduction of reprogramming factors, cells begin to form colonies that resemble pluripotent stem cells, which can be isolated based on their:?

a. All are corrects.

b. Conditions that select for their growth.

c. Reporter genes.

d. Through expression of surface markers

e. Morphology

60 / 60

Activation, or promotion – increase the rate of gene transcription?

a. Upregulation

b. Downregulation

c. Corepressor

d. Coactivator

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