Sémiologie Test 0% 28 votes, 4.8 avg 0 You will have 60 minutes to complete all the questions. After the timer reaches 60 minutes, the exam will end and be saved automatically. Good luck! *Fingers crossed* The timer has been reached. The exam has now been terminated and saved. Sémiologie Test 1 / 60 ក្នុងបណ្តារ techniques of examination ខាងក្រោម តើtechnique ណាមួយដែលអាចវាយតំល heart murmurបាន? a. Auscultation b. Inspection c. Percussion d. Palpation 2 / 60 ក្នុងបណ្តារ symptoms ខាងក្រោម តើsymptom មួយណាដែលមានទំនាក់ទំនងជាមួយនិង Peripheral vascular disorders? a. Hemoptysis b. Chest pain or discomfort c. Palpitations d. Intermittent claudication 3 / 60 ក្នុងបណ្តារ symptoms ខាងក្រោម តើsymptom មួយណាដែលមានទំនាក់ទំនងជាមួយនិង Cardiovascularsystem disorders? a. Expiratory dyspnea b. Inspiratory dyspnea c. Intermittent claudication d. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea 4 / 60 ក្នុងបណ្តារ ការវាយតំលែខាងក្រោម តើការវាយតំលែណាមួយដែលត្រូវគ្នាជាមួយរូបភាពភ្ជាប់មកជាមួយ? a. Auscultation for mitral regurgitation b. Auscultation for aortic valve stenosis c. Auscultation for mitral stenosis d. Auscultation for aortic valve regurgitation 5 / 60 បុរសម្នាក់អាយុ៦៥ឆ្នាំ ត្រូវបានគេបញ្ជូនមកមន្ទីរពេទ្យជាបន្ទាន់ដោយសារចុកទ្រូង។ ការសាកសួរប្រវត្តិជម្ងឺបានបង្ហាញថាប្រមាណ១ម៉ោងមុននេះ អ្នកជម្ងឺមានអាការៈចុកទ្រូងពេលគាត់ឡើងជណ្តើរផ្ទះ កូនគាត់ដែលនៅជាន់ទី៣។មុនដំបូងពេលគាត់ឡើងដល់ ជាន់ទី២គាត់មានអារម្មណ៍ថាណែនទ្រូង និងហត់ពេលគាត់ខំឡើងបន្តបាន៦កាំទៀតគាត់ចុកយ៉ាងខ្លាំង នៅចំកណ្តាលទ្រូងមានលក្ខណៈដូចគេគាបហើយចាក់ទៅថ្គាម ស្មារនិង ដៃឆ្វេង ពិបាកដកដង្ហើម បែកញើស និងត្រជាក់ចុងដៃចុងជើង។ ក្នុងបណ្តារសម្មតិកម្មខាងក្រោម តើសម្មតិកម្មណាមួយដែលបញ្ជាក់ពី Pain radiation? a. អ្នកជម្ងឺឈឺទ្រូងមានលក្ខណៈដូចគេគាប b. អ្នកជម្ងឺឈឺទ្រូងចាក់ទៅថ្គាម ស្មារ និង ដៃឆ្វេង c. អ្នកជម្ងឺចាប់ផ្តើមណែនទ្រូងពេលគាត់ខំឡើងជណ្តើរដល់ជាន់ទី២ d. អ្នកជម្ងឺឈឺខ្លាំងនៅចំកណ្តាលទ្រូង 6 / 60 បុរសម្នាក់អាយុ៥០ឆ្នាំ ជាគ្រូបង្រៀនបានចូលមកពិនិត្យ និងពិគ្រោះជម្ងឺកាលពីថ្ងៃទី២០សីហា២០១៦ ដោយមូលហេតុឈឺកំភួនជើងស្តាំ។ អ្នកជម្ងឺបានបញ្ជាក់ថាគាត់មានអារម្មណ៍តឹងនិងរោយកំភួនជើងស្តាំ នៅពេលដើរបានចម្ងាយប្រហែល៣០០ម៉ែត្រ នៅពេលគាត់ខំដើរបន្តទៀត បានចំងាយជិត៤០០ម៉ែត្រកំភួនជើងគាត់ឡើងរឹងហើយចុកខ្លាំងតំរួវអោយគាត់ឈប់សំរាកប្រមាណ៥នាទីទើបបាត់ឈឺ។ អ្នកជម្ងឺជក់បារី១ថ្ងៃ១កញ្ចប់រយៈពេល៣២ឆ្នាំហើយ។ គាត់ធ្លាប់សំរាកពេទ្យកាលពីបីឆ្នាំមុនដោយសារជម្ងឺលើសឈាម ហើយបន្តប្រើថ្នាំលើសឈាមរហូតសព្វថ្ងៃ។ ឳពុកគាត់បានស្លាប់កាលពីឆ្នាំមុន ដោយសារជំងឺលើសឈាមនេះដែរ។ តើអ្វីទៅជា present illnessរបស់អ្នកជម្ងឺខាងលើ? a. ឳពុកគាត់បានស្លាប់កាលពីឆ្នាំមុនដោយសារជម្ងឺលើសឈាម b. អ្នកជម្ងឺចុកកំភួនជើងស្តាំ យ៉ាងខ្លាំងពេលខំដើរបានជិត៤០០ម៉ែត្រ ហើយធូរស្រាលទៅវិញពេលសំរាកបានប្រមាណ៥នាទី c. គាត់ធ្លាប់សំរាកពេទ្យកាលពីបីឆ្នាំមុនដោយសារជំងឺលើសឈាម d. អ្នកជម្ងឺជក់បារី១ថ្ងៃ១កញ្ចប់រយៈពេល៣២ឆ្្នាំហើយ 7 / 60 ក្នុងបណ្តារ ការវាយតំលែខាងក្រោម តើការវាយតំលែណាមួយដែលត្រូវគ្នាជាមួយរូបភាពភ្ជាប់មកជាមួយ?កជាមួយ? a. Assess the spleen b. Assess costovertebral angle tenderness c. Assess the liver d. Assess the abdominal aorta 8 / 60 The Communication with crying patients can be described to one mainly statement below: a. Let the patient cries for a moment b. Tell the patient do something else c. Stop the patient cries immediately d. Tell the patient crying is not good 9 / 60 The mental status examination focus on the recalling of the people name has been explain as: a. Level of memory b. Level of consciousness c. Level of cognition d. Level of orientation 10 / 60 Silence patient during the interview has many meanings and many purposes. What is the most comprehensive related of the following? a. Silence related to the patient’s thought b. Silence related to the patient’s believe c. Silence related to the patient’s behaviors d. Silence related to the patient’s emotion 11 / 60 The mental status examination focus on the recognizing people has been explain as: a. Level of consciousness b. Level of cognition c. Level of orientation d. Level of memory 12 / 60 Silence patient during the interview the clinician should be encouraged patient to talk. What is the best technique in the following? a. Build relationship and observe to the patient. b. Build relationship and do not watch closely to the patient. c. Build relationship and support to the patient. d. Build relationship and watch closely to the patient 13 / 60 Quels examens qui utilisent les rayons X ? a. . IRM b. . Echographie 3D c. . TDM – Radiographie standard d. . Echographie – Hystérosonographie 14 / 60 Quelle incidence on peut voir bien le sternum? a. Décubitus latéral. b. Profil strict. c. Oblique. d. Antéropostérieur. e. Postéroantérieur. 15 / 60 Parmi les propositions suivantes laquelle est vraie ? a. Larynx séparé en 4 étages. b. Larynx séparé en 6 étages. c. Larynx séparé en 2 étages. d. Larynx séparé en 3 étages. e. Larynx séparé en 5 étages. 16 / 60 Concernant le sinus maxillaire, quelque est la proposition exacte ? a. Le sinus maxillaire se draine dans la fosse nasale par le canal fronto-nasal. b. Le sinus maxillaire se draine dans la fosse nasale par l’ostium sphénoïdal. c. Le sinus maxillaire peut être exploré par l’échographie. d. Le sinus maxillaire situé dans l’os maxillaire. e. Le sinus maxillaire situé dans le corps sphénoïdal. 17 / 60 Concernant la sémiologie radiologique de la pathologie tumorale de l’oropharynx et de la cavité orale, parmi les propositions suivantes sont vraies sauf une laquelle ? a. Les tumeurs sont plus de 90% des cas des tumeurs malignes de type carcinome épidermoïde. b. La tumeur se rehausse toujours nettement après injection de produit de contraste. c. Les tumeurs sont le plus souvent bénignes. d. Par rapport au signal musculaire normal la tumeur apparaît en isosignal T1avant injection de produit de contraste et discret hypersignal T2. e. L’imagerie repose essentiellement sur l’IRM. 18 / 60 Quel est le sujet qui est contre indiqué pour faire la tomodensitométrie (TDM) de la sphère ORL avec injection de produit de contraste iodé ? a. Le sujet qui a un corps étranger ferromagnétique. b. Le sujet qui a un pacemaker. c. Le sujet qui a une claustrophobie. d. Le sujet qui a une fonction rénale normale. e. Le sujet qui a une insuffisance rénale sévère. 19 / 60 Dans les examens de la partie abdominale on divise plusieurs quadrants pour faciliter le diagnostic de la maladie. Est qu’il y a bien de quadrants divisé ? a. 5 quadrants b. 7 quadrants c. 6 quadrants d. 9 quadrants e. 8 quadrants 20 / 60 Choisissez seulement une phrase correcte ci-dessous (Picture7) a. 2- Masse latérale de C1 b. 4- Apophyse articulaire supérieure de C2 c. 5-Appophyse articulaire inférieure de C1 d. 1- Odontoide e. 3- Appophyse transverse de C1 21 / 60 Choisissez seulement une phrase correcte ci-dessous (Picture13) a. 5- Graisse b. 4- Sac dural c. 1- Foramen intervertébral d. 3- Ligament jaune e. 2- Ligament postérieur 22 / 60 Choisissez seulement une phrase correcte ci-dessous (Picture6) a. 5-grand trochanter b. 6- Petit trochanter c. 9- Pédicule d. 7-Crête iliaque e. 8-Aile iliaque gauche 23 / 60 Choisissez seulement une phrase correcte ci-dessous (Picture5) a. 2-Cuéniforme médiale b. 9-Phalange proximale c. 8-Phalange moyenne d. 7-Phalange distale e. 3-Cuéniforme intermédiaire 24 / 60 les propositions suivantes concernent le système nerveux périphérique : a. Il comporte cinq plexus b. La branche dorsale est sensitive. c. Les nerfs deviennent de plus en plus horizontaux de crânial en caudal. d. Ce sont les branches dorsales des nerfs spinaux qui constituent les plexus. e. Les paires de nerfs spinaux L5 à S5 constituent le plexus lombo-sacré. 25 / 60 On divise le système nerveux en : a. Système nerveux parasympathique et système nerveux sympathique b. Système nerveux central et système nerveux périphérique c. Système nerveux périphérique et Système nerveux autonome d. Système nerveux central et système nerveux somatique e. Système nerveux autonome et système nerveux somatique 26 / 60 les propositions suivantes concernent le système nerveux périphérique : a. On dénombre 7 paires de nerfs cervicaux. b. Les nerfs spinaux naissent du tronc cérébral. c. Les 7 premières paires de nerfs cervicaux sortent au-dessus de la vertèbre correspondante (ayant le même numéro) alors que les nerfs thoraciques et lombaires sortent en dessous de la vertèbre correspondante. d. Il comporte de la substance blanche et de la substance grise. e. Il correspond aux 12 paires de nerfs spinaux et 31 paires de nerfs crâniens. 27 / 60 In sign of “Urgency”, patient has difficulty to: a. Start urination b. Pass urine c. Empty bladder after urination d. Get up at night to urinate e. Get to the toilet in time 28 / 60 “Ureteral colic” should be caused by: a. Stone in urethra b. Stone in gall bladder c. Stone in ureter d. Stone in kidney e. Stone in bladder 29 / 60 Gaz du sang a. Gaz du sans et transfère de gaz (DLCO) sont le même principe b. Permet l’évaluation de stade de BPCO c. Permet l’évaluation de la fonction d’hématose des poumons d. Permet l’évaluation de stade de l'asthme e. Appliquer en cas où le détresse respiratoire sévère 30 / 60 Which of the following structures is most likely to be identified posteriorly on a chest CT scan at the level of the diaphragm? a. ) Liver b. ) Spleen c. ) Pancreas d. ) Aorta e. ) Inferior vena cava 31 / 60 Radio-anatomie du sphère ORL, choisissez l’un des suivants: a. Sinus éthmoïdal b. Sinus sphénoïdal c. Sinus maxillaire d. Cellule mastoïdienne e. Sinus frontal 32 / 60 Radio-anatomie du sphère ORL, choisissez l’une image en étoile des suivants: a. Cavité buccale b. Larynx c. Nasopharynx d. Oropharynx 33 / 60 Radio-anatomie du thorax. Quell est l’organe l’absorption importante le rayon X? a. Os b. Graisseuse c. Cartilage d. Hydrique e. Aérique 34 / 60 Which imaging technique is preferred for assessing the larynx and vocal cords? a. ) X-ray b. ) MRI c. ) CT scan d. ) Ultrasound e. ) PET scan 35 / 60 Choose the common site of Nosocomial Infection. a. Urinary Tract Infection (UTI) b. Surgical Site Infection (SSI) c. All of the above d. Catheter-Associated Blood Stream Infection (CABSI) 36 / 60 What is not considered during the IPC risk assessment? a. None of the above b. Pre-diagnosed condition or symptoms c. Risk of contacting body fluid d. Patient’s blood type e. Medical procedure to be performed 37 / 60 How can HCF ensure the quality of water? a. All of the above b. Regular monitoring and evaluation of water quality c. Regular monitoring and evaluation of water supply d. Regular monitoring and evaluation of water treatment process 38 / 60 infection prevention and control (IPC) measures can break the chain of infection by a. Remove the reservoir of micro-organism and block the mode of transmission b. Remove the reservoir of micro-organism c. Block the mode of transmission d. All of the above excepted (d) e. Remove all risky micro-organisms 39 / 60 Choose the correct example of HCF ventilation. a. Window is open and mosquito net is installed in the patient room b. Isolation room has a ceiling fan to make air circulate to outside c. Window is blocked with TV screen in the patient room d. None of the above 40 / 60 Choose the correct statement bacteria to comment infection gangrene: a. Bacteria Gram (-): Anaerobia b. Bacteria Gram (+): Enterococcus c. Bacteria Gram (-): Pseudomonas d. Bacteria Gram (+): Streptococcus e. Bacteria Gram (+): Staphylococcus 41 / 60 What is definition of pathogens? a. Toxic chemicals b. Microorganisms that produces toxic chemicals c. None of the above d. Any agent, including chemicals, microorganisms and heavy metals that damage the human host. e. Microorganisms that damage the human host by direct invasion or by toxic products 42 / 60 Choose incorrect example of respiratory hygiene practice. a. Wiping nose with hand when sneezing b. Throwing away the used tissue to the trash bin c. Washing hands regularly d. Covering nose when coughing 43 / 60 ដើម្បីវាស់សំពាធឈាមអោយបានត្រឹមត្រូវ។អ្នកជំងឺត្រូវ a. ហាមនិយាយ ធ្វើចលនាពេលកំពុងវាស់ b. សំរាកអោយបាន៣០ នាទីបន្ទាប់ពី ជក់បារី រឺពិសាសុរា c. លាត់ដៃអាវអោយផុតពីឧបករណ៍វាស់ d. អង្គុយលើកៅអីសំរាកអោយបាន៥នាទី e. ចំឡើយខាងលើត្រឹមត្រូវ។ 44 / 60 Signe appartient au syndrome interstitiel: a. Opacitéhilifuge b. Opacitéconfluente c. Brochocèle d. Opacité en aile de papillon e. Opaciténodullaire à contours flous 45 / 60 Pour l’enfant plus de 6 ans, on fait la radiographie du thorax comme technique: a. Couché en AP b. Debout en AP c. Debout en PA d. Couché en PA 46 / 60 Atteinte d’interstitium sous pleural donnant: a. . Opacité confluente b. . Opacité en rail c. . Opacité hilifuge d. . Ligne septale e. . Opacité en nid d’abeille 47 / 60 Quel est le diagnostic le plus probable devant une toux aiguë associée à une fièvre ? a. Pleurésie b. Bronchite aiguë c. Pneumothorax d. Cancer pulmonaire e. Tuberculose 48 / 60 Quel argument pensez-vous que c’est une hémoptysie ? a. Sang noir et foncé avec débris alimentaire b. Sang rouge mêlé de débris alimentaire c. Ayant un ATCD digestif d. Sang rouge survenant lors d’effort de toux e. Sang noir survenant lors de vomissement 49 / 60 The ________________ are the site of sperm maturation, and they store and convey spermatozoa to the dectus deferentia a. bulbourethral glands b. epididymides c. interstitial cells of the testes d. ejaculatory ducts 50 / 60 What portions of the penis contain erectile tissue that becomes engorged with blood? a. corpus spongiosum b. corpora cavernosa and corpus spongiosum c. corona glandis d. corpora cavernosa 51 / 60 Of the following male organs, which one is considered a primary sex organ? a. gonads (testes) b. seminal vesicles c. penis d. ejaculatory ducts 52 / 60 which ONE of the following statements is true? a. Patient interview only help for reaching diagnosis. b. Patient interview is availability of information for research, reportable diseases, insurance claims. c. Patient interview help for reaching diagnosis, treatment plan, evaluation medical progress, and medico-legal record. d. Patient interview only help for medico-legal record. e. Patient interview is recording necessary medical information (classical examination signs). 53 / 60 which ONE of the following statements is true? a. Interview to keep the patients perspective in mind if you want to build the patient confidence. b. Your clinical behavior and appearance are related to your words, behavior, posture, gestures, eye contact, interest, attention, acceptance and understanding. c. The environment makes the interview setting as public and comfortable as possible. d. Clinical behavior and appearance are behavior of body language focus only on physical examination of the patient. e. The skilled interview seems calm and hurried because the time is limited. 54 / 60 ក្នុងចំណោមបច្ចេកទេសប្រើប្រាស់ Investigation of pulmonary Embolism. បច្ចេកទេសងាយស្រួលហើយ Non Aggressive គឺ: a. Computed Tomography Angiogram b. Echo-Doppler c. Angiography d. Angiplasty e. Echography 55 / 60 Quelle est l’amplitude normale de l’onde P ? a. < 0.44s b. < 0.12s c. Isoélectrique d. 0.25mV e. 0.12-0.20s 56 / 60 Sur l’ASP couché, l’examen doit être vu jusqu’à : a. Les 12ème côtes b. La colonne lombaire L5 c. Le pubis d. La coupole diaphragmatique e. Les crêtes iliaques 57 / 60 Sur les coupes échographiques, les segments 2,4,8,7 du foie sont divisées par : a. Les voies biliaires b. Les branches des artères hépatiques c. Les veines sus hépatiques d. Les branches portales e. La vésicule biliaire 58 / 60 L’examen si-dessous est une coupe axiale en scanner au niveau de : a. Le pelvis (cul de sac de Douglas) b. Le pancréas c. Le colon ascendant d. Les intestins grêles e. Le foie 59 / 60 Situation eutopique : a. Rein droit plus haut que le gauche b. Rein droit dans le pelvis c. Rein droit au niveau du 10è cote. d. Rein droit plus bas que le gauche 60 / 60 Angioscanner des vaisseaux du rein: a. .V rénale gauche longue et horizontale. b. .V rénale gauche longue et verticale. c. .V rénale gauche courte et horizontale. d. .V rénale gauche courte et verticale. Your score isThe average score is 0% Facebook 0% Restart quiz Any comments? Send feedback
