Immunologie Générale Et Appliquée Test

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1 / 60

Which of the following is used to enumerate and/or separate live cells that express an antigen , sorted by applying an electric charge to the stained cells ?

a. FACS (fluorescence-activated cell sorting)

b. Western blotting (immunoblotting)

c. ELISA (Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay)

d. Fluorescent antibody (fluorochromes)

2 / 60

Which of the following differentiates an antigen from an immunogen ?

a. An antigen does not always elicit an immune response

b. An antigen is a foreign molecule

c. Antigens are usually proteins or polysaccharides

d. An antigen can cause the production of antibodies

3 / 60

Patients with MHC class II (or class I) antigen deficiency would exhibit which of the following?

a. Human immuno-deficiency virus (HIV) infection

b. Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)

c. Persistent bacterial and viral infections

d. Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS, sepsis)

4 / 60

The response time to antigenic stimulation for memory B and T cells is described as ____, for naïve B and T cells is described as ____, and for effector B and T cells is described as ____.

a. Responding; Slow Fast

b. Fast; Slow; Responding

c. Responding; Fast; Slow

d. Slow; Fast; Responding

5 / 60

Which of the following immune system components would NOT r ecognize a macromolecul e epitope (binding site) ?

a. Antibody

b. Phagocyte

c. T lymphocytes

d. B lymphocytes

6 / 60

Cytotoxic T cells induced by infection with virus A will kill target cells

a. Infected by virus A and identical at class I MHC loci of the cytotoxic T cells.

b. Infected with virus B and identical at class I MHC loci of the cytotoxic cells.

c. Infected by virus A and identical at class II MHC loci of the cytotoxic T cells.

d. From the same host infected with any virus

7 / 60

Which isotype of immunoglobulin is involved in a type I hypersensitivity?

a. IgG

b. IgM

c. IgE

d. IgA

8 / 60

In the embryonic human , the primary lymphoid organs are initially in the yolk sac , then in the feta l ____, and finally in the ____.

a. Spleen and liver; Bone marrow and thymus

b. Kidneys and thymus; Bone marrow and spleen

c. Spleen and thymus; Bone marrow and kidneys

d. Spleen and kidneys; Bone marrow and thymus

9 / 60

Which of the following would be used as preliminary screening for the presence of antibodies to HIV proteins in a patient’s blood sample?

a. ELISA (Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay)

b. FACS (fluorescence-activated cell sorting)

c. Western blotting (immunoblotting)

d. Fluorescent antibody (fluorochromes)

10 / 60

Which of the following is NOT t rue regarding interferon ?

a. Interferon is viral specific, attacking viral proteins

b. NK cells are activated by interferon and lyse infected cells

c. Antigen-presenting cells are inactivated.

d. Interferon prevents infection spreading from cell to cell.

11 / 60

The expression of cell surface markers is determined in t he flow cytometer by which of the following?

a. Chemiluminescence

b. Optical density

c. Fluorescence

d. Radioactivity

12 / 60

Which of the following components of the innate immune system involves the release of histamine ?

a. Tissue mast cell

b. Natural killer cell

c. Neutrophil

d. Eosinophil

13 / 60

What types of professional APC cell that MHC-II present antigen to T H n a ïve ?

a. B cells

b. Dendritic cells

c. Macrophages

d. Essentially cells

14 / 60

Which of the following best describes the affinity of antibody secreted for effector B cells ?

a. High

b. Low

c. Decreases during response

d. Increases during response

15 / 60

Which statement best describes what will most likely happen when an individual receives a vaccination containing a weakened pathogen ?

a. The ability to produce antibodies will decrease after the vaccination.

b. The ability to resist most types of diseases will increase.

c. The ability to fight disease will increase due to antibodies received from the pathogen.

d. The ability to fight disease caused by the pathogen will increase due to antibody production.

16 / 60

Which of the following is a v ery sensitive and simple test for antigens , which uses a covalent complex of enzyme linked t o antibody, to detect antigen directly or to bind antibody-antigen complex?

a. FACS (fluorescence-activated cell sorting)

b. Western blotting (immunoblotting)

c. Fluorescent antibody (fluorochromes)

d. ELISA (Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay)

17 / 60

Which of the following u ses ultraviolet (UV) light for examining specimens?

a. Western blotting (immunoblotting)

b. Fluorescent antibody (fluorochromes)

c. ELISA (Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay)

d. FACS (fluorescence-activated cell sorting)

18 / 60

To replace burned skin, doctors can successfully transplant replacement skin taken from another part of the body of the burn victim. Which statement best explains why the transplanted skin is not rejected ?

a. There is no blood supply to the skin, so mixing of antigens does not occur.

b. The antigens of the replacement skin are the same as those of the damaged skin.

c. Burn victims lose so much blood that white blood cells cannot cause an immune response.

d. The transplanted skin is damaged, making the immune system nonfunctional.

19 / 60

The virus that causes bird flu can attach to the cells of the lower part of the respiratory system in humans, but not to the cells of the upper part of the respiratory system. The most likely reason for this is that these two groups of cells have different:

a. Enzymes in their mitochondria

b. DNA code in their nuclei

c. Amounts of water in their cytoplasm

d. Receptor molecules on their membranes

20 / 60

Monoclonal antibodies (mAb) are antibodies with a wide range of clinically important applications, such as pregnancy tests, cancer diagnosis, and cancer treatment. These antibodies are ____ and come from ____ parent cell(s).

a. Identical; multiple

b. Identical; a single

c. Dissimilar; Multiple

d. Dissimilar; a single

21 / 60

Which of the following is a polysaccharide vaccine:

a. Anthrax vaccine

b. Rabies vaccine

c. Hib vaccine

d. Hepatitis A

22 / 60

What vaccine can be used for pregnant women?

a. Rubella vaccine

b. Tetanus vaccine

c. Measle vaccine

d. Varicella vaccine

23 / 60

The complement system are synthesized by:

a. Liver, spleen and phagocytic cells

b. Liver, kidneys and spleen

c. Liver, lymph node and spleen

d. Liver, bone marrow and thymus

24 / 60

Often patients are immune to diseases like chicken pox once infecte. This immunity is an example of?

a. Naturally acquired passive immunity

b. Naturally acquired active immunity

c. Artificially acquired passive immunity

d. Artificially acquired active immunity

25 / 60

Which of the following immune cells/molecules are most effective at destroying intracellular pathogens?

a. T cytolytic cells

b. B cells

c. T helper cells

d. Complement

26 / 60

Which of the following statement is true regarding vaccination:

a. Vaccination is a method of passive immunization

b. Vaccination is a method of artificial passive immunization

c. Vaccination is a method of natural passive

d. Vaccination is a method of active immunization

27 / 60

The following statements are criteria for a good vaccine but which is incorrect statement?

a. Provide durable, long-term protection against disease

b. Are effective in preventing severity of infectious disease

c. Achieve immunity with a several number of doses

d. Provide broadest protection against infection

28 / 60

Several of the complement components are:

a. Cytokines

b. Antibodies

c. Enzymes

d. Glycolipids

29 / 60

Which of the following is the site of T cell maturation?

a. Bone marrow

b. Appendix

c. Thymus

d. Spleen

30 / 60

The following statements are related to hepatitis B and pregnancy which statement is incorrect?

a. HBV vaccine and HBIG are given at same time to 2 sites in 12-24 h of delivery

b. Three possible routes for transmission of HBV: Transplacental, Natal and Horizontal

c. The infants then receive two additional doses of HBV vaccine at ages 1-2 M & 6-8 M

d. Both active and passive immunizations are used for HBsAg-positive mothers

31 / 60

Antigen presenting cells for vaccine are:

a. Dendritic cells

b. Macrophage

c. NK cells

d. Neutrophile

32 / 60

Injection of immunoglobulin is:

a. Artificial type of active immunity

b. Artificial type of passive immunity

c. Natural type of active immunity

d. Natural type of passive immunity

33 / 60

Antigen-presenting cells that activate helper T cells must express which one of the following on their surfaces?

a. Gamma interferon

b. Class I MHC antigens

c. Class II MHC antigens

d. Ig E

34 / 60

The main advantage of passive immunization over active immunization is that:

a. It provides antibody more rapidly

b. It contains primarily IgM

c. It can be administered orally

d. Antibody persists for a longer period

35 / 60

The following statements are the use of passive immunization included but except one?

a. Exposure to pathogens that can cause death longer

b. Exposure to pathogens that can cause death faster

c. Toxin or venom exposure with immediate threat to life

d. Immune deficiency, especially congenital or acquired B-cell defects

36 / 60

In an immune response the type of cell which gets activated earliest is:

a. Cytotoxic T cells

b. Plasma cells

c. Killer T cells

d. Helper T cells

37 / 60

What vaccine should not be frozen:

a. MMR vaccine

b. Adjuvanted Vaccine

c. Live attenuated vaccine

d. Chickenpox vaccine

38 / 60

The circulation of a two month old breast-fed baby will contain maternal:

a. IgM

b. IgA

c. IgD

d. IgG

39 / 60

Infectious material from what illness was used to develop the first vaccine?

a. Polio

b. Cowpox

c. Plague

d. Diphtheria

40 / 60

The herd immunity is:

a. The population level effect of a vaccination programme

b. An estimate of the direct protection in a field study post licensure

c. An indirect effect of vaccination due to reduced disease transmission

d. The direct protection to a vaccinated individual as estimated from clinical trial

41 / 60

The class of immunoglobulin present in highest concentration in blood of a human newborn is:

a. Ig D

b. Ig M

c. Ig A

d. Ig G

42 / 60

The characteristic of antigen-antibody interactions occur in primary stage:

a. Occurring in vivo and humoral immunity

b. Precipitation reaction

c. Lysis of cells and irreversible reaction

d. Rapid and reversible reaction

43 / 60

The following statements are important mechanisms in which immunoglobulin molecules are essential included but except one?

a. Activation and signal transduction in B cells

b. Activation and modulation of complement system

c. Binding to cell surface receptors on phagocytes to initiate phagocytosis

d. Activation and signal transduction in suppressor T-cells

44 / 60

The Adverse events following immunization (AEFI) are divided into:

a. 3 categories

b. 6 categories

c. 4 categories

d. 5 categories

45 / 60

For vaccination against mycobacterial diseases such as tuberculosis, the most important facet of the immune response to be stimulated is:

a. Macrophage-activating cell-mediated immunity

b. A high titer of antibody

c. Cytotoxic T-cells

d. Antibody in the gut lumen

46 / 60

The complement system consists of about:

a. Twenty immunoglobulins

b. Twenty plasma proteins

c. Twenty antigens

d. Twenty lymphocytes

47 / 60

The Follicular Dendritic Cells (FDCs) is located in:

a. Tonsils

b. Peyer’s Patch

c. Spleen and Lymph nodes

d. Bone marrow and Thymus

48 / 60

Which of the following immune mechanism is responsible for protecting us from diseases of other species?

a. Innate immunity

b. Passive immunity

c. Active immunity

d. Adaptive immunity

49 / 60

In the application Antigen- Antibody reaction, which one is correct?

a. Immunofluorescence is used to detect antigen or antibodies

b. Radioimmunoassay is to locate and identify antigen in tissues and clinical materials

c. Agglutination reaction is identifying blood grouping and cross matching

d. Precipitation test is measuring of concentration of antigen and antibody

50 / 60

An epitope:

a. Is usually composed of a linear sequence of amino acids

b. Is the area on an antibody which contacts antigen

c. Requires both antigen-binding arms of the antibody molecule for its recognition

d. Is the area on an antigen which contacts antibody

51 / 60

All are functions of immunoglobulins but except:

a. Fixation of complement

b. Antigens bindings

c. Binding to various cell types

d. Secretion of cytokines

52 / 60

The immune cells that is linked between innate and adaptive immunity are:

a. T-cells

b. B-cells

c. NK T-cells

d. Macrophages

53 / 60

All are 3 main effects of complement but except:

a. Direct lysis of cells

b. Opsonization and pathogen clearance

c. Inflammatory cell stimulation

d. Neutralization of antigens

54 / 60

វ៉ាក់សាំង ការពាររបេងជា វ៉ាក់សាំងដែល ភ្ញោចជាសំខាន់

a. លើការផលិត អង្គបដិបក្ខ

b. លើ immunité innée

c. លើ immunité à médiation cellulaire

d. លើ immunité humorale

55 / 60

Toxines ត្រូវបាន neutralisé ដោយ

a. endonucléase

b. toxoïds

c. compléments

d. anticorps

56 / 60

CD8 ជា marqueur របស់

a. Cellule NK

b. lymphocyte T cytotoxique

c. lymphocyte B

d. lymphocyte T auxilliaire

57 / 60

ភាពខុសគ្នារវាង réponse humoral primaire និង secondaire មានទំនាក់ទំនង នឹង :

a. អង្កត់ (fragment) variable របស់ Ig

b. បរិមាណនៃ អង់ទីហ្សែន

c. classe នៃ Immunoglobuline (Ig) នៅកលផ្ទៃរបស់ lymphocyte B/B cell

d. ភាពខុសគ្នានៃ affinité របស់ IgG សំរាប់អង់ទីហ្សែនមួយ

58 / 60

តើម៉ូលេគុលណាមួយជាម៉ូលេគុលរបស់ HLA classe II:

a. HLA-DR

b. HLA-B

c. HLA-A

d. HLA-C

59 / 60

Bactérie extracellulaire ត្រូវបាន lysé យ៉ាងប្រសើរដោយសារ

a. កោសិកា natural killer

b. macrophage រួមជាមួយនិង អង្គបដិបក្ខ

c. macrophage

d. macrophage រួមជាមួយនិង អង្គបដិបក្ខ និង complément

60 / 60

Récepteur de lymphocyte B គឺ:

a. récepteur de C3a

b. Immunoglobuline M membranaire

c. récepteur de វីរុស Epstein-Barr

d. អង្កត់ Fc របស់ IgM

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Immunologie Générale Et Appliquée Test

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