Immunologie Générale Et Appliquée Test

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1 / 60

A potential disadvantage of immunological protection using passive transfer of horse globulins is:

a. Serum sickness

b. Irreversible protection

c. Lack of antibody-mediated immune response

d. Type IV hypersensitivity reactions

2 / 60

Adjuvant used in HPV vaccine is:

a. Liposome

b. Monophosphoryl lipide A (MPL)

c. Aluminium phosphate (AlPO4)

d. Aluminium hydroxyphosphate sulphate

3 / 60

Hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh blood group incompatibility requires maternal antibody to enter the fetal bloodstream. Therefore, the mediator of this disease is:

a. Ig M antibody

b. Ig E antibody

c. Ig A antibody

d. Ig G antibody

4 / 60

The following statements are related to Rhesus D alloimmunization in pregnancy which statement is incorrect?

a. Rh(D) positive neonates of these mothers are at risk of developing hemolytic disease

b. All Rh(-) pregnant women should do an antibody screen at last semester of prenatal visit

c. Routine administration of anti-D Ig at 28 weeks of gestation or within 72 h of delivery

d. It develops as a result of maternal immune system exposure to Rh(+) RBCs

5 / 60

An epitope:

a. Is usually composed of a linear sequence of amino acids

b. Is the area on an antigen which contacts antibody

c. Is the area on an antibody which contacts antigen

d. Requires both antigen-binding arms of the antibody molecule for its recognition

6 / 60

Adjuvant used in HBV vaccine is:

a. Calcium phosphate

b. Aluminium phosphate (AlPO4)

c. Monophosphoryl lipide A (MPL)

d. Liposome

7 / 60

What is the mode of administration for anti-measles vaccine?

a. Intramuscular (IM)

b. Intradermal route (ID)

c. Subcutaneous route (SC)

d. Oral route

8 / 60

The complement system are synthesized by:

a. Liver, bone marrow and thymus

b. Liver, lymph node and spleen

c. Liver, kidneys and spleen

d. Liver, spleen and phagocytic cells

9 / 60

Primary lymphoid organs include

a. Thymus and lymphoid follicle

b. Thymus and spleen

c. Thymus and lymph nodes

d. Thymus and bone marrow

10 / 60

In order to elicit an immune response, a carbohydrate must be which of the following?

a. Administered intranasally

b. Bound to a protein carrier

c. Degraded

d. Bound to a lipid carrier

11 / 60

Several of the complement components are:

a. Antibodies

b. Glycolipids

c. Enzymes

d. Cytokines

12 / 60

Newborns get their antibodies from mother’s milk. This is an example of?

a. Naturally acquired passive immunity

b. Naturally acquired active immunity

c. Artificially acquired active immunity

d. Artificially acquired passive immunity

13 / 60

Vaccination is an example of?

a. Naturally acquired active immunity

b. Artificially acquired passive immunity

c. Artificially acquired active immunity

d. Naturally acquired passive immunity

14 / 60

All are immune cells in innate immune system but except:

a. NK cells

b. Macrophages

c. Lymphocytes

d. Dendritic cells

15 / 60

The immunoglobulins transport across epithelium:

a. All immunoglobulins

b. Ig A, Ig M

c. Ig A and Ig G

d. Ig A, Ig M and Ig G

16 / 60

The first recombinant antigen vaccine approved for human use is:

a. Var vaccine

b. DPT vaccine

c. Hepatitis B vaccine

d. Hib vaccine

17 / 60

The adverse effects of vaccines are linked to:

a. Group of ages and components of a vaccine

b. Antigen, components of a vaccine, group of ages

c. Antigen, group of ages and date of vaccination

d. Vaccine and date of vaccination, field

18 / 60

Which of the following is the site of T cell maturation?

a. Spleen

b. Appendix

c. Bone marrow

d. Thymus

19 / 60

The Follicular Dendritic Cells (FDCs) is located in:

a. Bone marrow and Thymus

b. Peyer’s Patch

c. Spleen and Lymph nodes

d. Tonsils

20 / 60

The ideal storage conditions of adjuvanted vaccines in a refrigerator are between:

a. 1 degree to 3 degree

b. 5 degree to 10 degree

c. 2 degree to 8 degree

d. 0 degree to 3 degree

21 / 60

All are factors influencing in immunogenicity but except:

a. Contribution of biological system

b. Contribution of immunogen

c. Method of administration

d. Composition of antigen

22 / 60

The characteristic of antigen-antibody interactions occur in tertiary stage:

a. Occurring in vivo and humoral immunity

b. Rapid and reversible reaction

c. Precipitation reaction

d. Lysis of cells and irreversible reaction

23 / 60

All are mechanism of action of complement but except:

a. Recruitment and activation of phagocytic cells

b. Opsonin

c. Lysis of bacteria and some viruses

d. Decrease in vascular permeability

24 / 60

Serum which contains antibodies is called:

a. Antigens

b. Antibodies

c. Antiserum

d. Globulin

25 / 60

An antigen is:

a. A chemical that inhibits the growth of micro organisms

b. A protein produced by B cells to respond to an immunogen and also reacts with an antigen

c. A substance that induces a specific immune response

d. A substance which reacts with the products of a specific immune response

26 / 60

What vaccine should be avoided for the pregnant woman?

a. Tetanus vaccine

b. Diphtheria vaccine

c. OPV Vaccine

d. IPV vaccine

27 / 60

The following statements are the use of passive immunization included but except one?

a. Toxin or venom exposure with immediate threat to life

b. Exposure to pathogens that can cause death faster

c. Immune deficiency, especially congenital or acquired B-cell defects

d. Exposure to pathogens that can cause death longer

28 / 60

The general principle of vaccination was established by:

a. Carl Landsteiner

b. Joseph Miester

c. dward Jenner

d. Louis Pasteur

29 / 60

Toxines ត្រូវបាន neutralisé ដោយ

a. compléments

b. endonucléase

c. anticorps

d. toxoïds

30 / 60

ម៉ូលេគុលដែលបង្ហាញនៅលើផ្ទៃភ្នាសរបស់ lymphocyte T CD4 ដែលភ្ជាប់ទៅនឹងម៉ូលេគុល B7 គឺ :

a. CD28

b. CD56

c. ICAM-1

d. CD38

31 / 60

lymphocyte Th2 ផលិត cytokine

a. Interferon gamma

b. IL-4

c. TGF beta

d. IL-1

32 / 60

CD8 ជា marqueur របស់

a. lymphocyte T auxilliaire

b. Cellule NK

c. lymphocyte T cytotoxique

d. lymphocyte B

33 / 60

អង្គបដិបក្ខ spécifique អាច តាមដានឃើញមានវត្តមាន ក្នុង សេរ៉ូម បន្ទាប់ ពី មាន infection :

a. កក្រោយ ១០ នាទី

b. ក្រោយ ១ ម៉ោង

c. ក្រោយ ៥ ទៅ ៧ ថ្ងៃ

d. ក្រោយ ៣ ទៅ ៥ សប្ដាហ៍

34 / 60

វ៉ាក់សាំង ការពាររបេងជា វ៉ាក់សាំងដែល ភ្ញោចជាសំខាន់

a. លើ immunité innée

b. លើការផលិត អង្គបដិបក្ខ

c. លើ immunité à médiation cellulaire

d. លើ immunité humorale

35 / 60

វ៉ាក់សាំង virus vivant atténué est indiqué សំរាប់

a. អ្នកជំងឺ leucémie

b. ក្មេង អាយុក្រោម ៨ ឆ្នាំ

c. អ្នកជំងឺដែលស្ថិតក្រោមការព្យាបាល ដោយ corticoïde ឬ radiothérapie

d. ស្ដ្រីមានផ្ទៃពោះ

36 / 60

réaction immunitaire primaire មានភាពខុសគ្នា នឹង ប្រតិកម្ម secondaire ដោយ :

a. អង្គបដិបក្ខ មាន សកម្មភាព ក្នុងរយៈពេលវែង

b. មាន ការផលិត យ៉ាងខ្លាំង នូវបរិមាណ អង្គបដិបក្ខ ប្រភេទ IgG

c. កដំណាក់កាល latence មានរយៈពេលខ្លី

d. មាន ការផលិត យ៉ាងខ្លាំង នូវបរិមាណ អង្គបដិបក្ខ ប្រភេទ IgM

37 / 60

មុខងារ effecteur របស់អង្គបដិបក្ខ ក្នុងការបំផ្លាញកោសិកា cible ប្រព្រិត្តឡើងតាមរយៈ

a. ផ្នែក F(ab)2 របស់អង្គបដិបក្ខ

b. កោសិកា phagocyte

c. récepteur នៃ compléments

d. ផ្នែក Fc របស់ អង្គបដិបក្ខ

38 / 60

កោសិកា Natural killer

a. មិនមានម៉ូលេគុល CD3 នៅលើផ្ទៃភ្នាសខាងក្រៅ

b. មិនមានម៉ូលេគុល CD56 នៅលើផ្ទៃភ្នាសខាងក្រៅ

c. មិនធ្វើសកម្មភាព cytolytique

d. មាន ម៉ូលេគុល CD3 នៅលើផ្ទៃភ្នាសខាងក្រៅ

39 / 60

Défensine ជា:

a. peptide bactéricide

b. chemokines

c. cytokines

d. lysozymes

40 / 60

Which of the following components of the adaptive immune system causes lysis of virally infected cells and the release of cytokines?

a. CD8+ cytotoxic and CD4+ activated T cell

b. CD4+ activated T cell

c. Activated B cell (Plasma cell)

d. CD8+ cytotoxic T cell

41 / 60

Which of the following components of the innate immune system involves the release of histamine ?

a. Eosinophil

b. Neutrophil

c. Tissue mast cell

d. Natural killer cell

42 / 60

Gamma () globulin serum fraction contains predominantly which immunoglobulin?

a. IgD

b. IgE

c. IgA

d. IgG

e. IgM

43 / 60

What types of professional APC cell that MHC-II present antigen to T H n a ïve ?

a. Essentially cells

b. Macrophages

c. Dendritic cells

d. B cells

44 / 60

Where does a mature T cell encounter antigen for the first time?

a. Freely in the blood stream

b. On an APC in a primary lymphoid organ

c. Freely in a secondary lymphoid organ

d. On an APC in a secondary lymphoid organ

45 / 60

In the embryonic human , the primary lymphoid organs are initially in the yolk sac , then in the feta l ____, and finally in the ____.

a. Spleen and thymus; Bone marrow and kidneys

b. Spleen and kidneys; Bone marrow and thymus

c. Kidneys and thymus; Bone marrow and spleen

d. Spleen and liver; Bone marrow and thymus

46 / 60

Which of the following best describes penicillin, a hapten ?

a. Small in size and needs to be coupled to induce an immune response

b. Small in size and can induce an immune response alone

c. Large in size and can induce an immune response alone

d. Large in size and needs to be coupled to induce an immune response

47 / 60

Which of the following is a v ery sensitive and simple test for antigens , which uses a covalent complex of enzyme linked t o antibody, to detect antigen directly or to bind antibody-antigen complex?

a. Western blotting (immunoblotting)

b. FACS (fluorescence-activated cell sorting)

c. Fluorescent antibody (fluorochromes)

d. ELISA (Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay)

48 / 60

CD4+ cells recognize antigen displayed on MHC ____ molecules and CD8+ cells recognize antigen displayed on MHC ____ molecules. ____ has TH1 and TH2 cell populations.

a. Class II; Class I; CD4+

b. Class II; Class I; CD8+

c. Class I; Class II; CD8+

d. Class I; Class II; CD4+

49 / 60

What is the primary response seen in acute-phase responses to infection ?

a. Decreased blood pH

b. Increased heart rate

c. Increased body temperature.

d. Decreased metabolic pH

50 / 60

Which statement best describes what will most likely happen when an individual receives a vaccination containing a weakened pathogen ?

a. The ability to fight disease caused by the pathogen will increase due to antibody production.

b. The ability to resist most types of diseases will increase.

c. The ability to produce antibodies will decrease after the vaccination.

d. The ability to fight disease will increase due to antibodies received from the pathogen.

51 / 60

The Westerm Blot test used to confirm HIV is an example of which of the following?

a. Immunoelectrophoresis

b. Double diffusion

c. Passive agglutination

d. Immunofixation

52 / 60

The zone at which antibody and antigen are at optimal concentration so that they form a large insoluble lattice together is called the:

a. Postzone

b. Equivalence zone

c. Prezone

d. Prozone

53 / 60

During B cell development, precursor cells are found in the ____ and mature cells are found in the ____.

a. Bone marrow; Periphery

b. Periphery; Periphery

c. Bone marrow; Bone marrow

d. Spleen; Bone marrow

54 / 60

____ is frequently found on the surface of B cells co-expressed with ____. These two classes are co-expressed not by class switching but by alternative processing of a primary RNA transcript. Both molecules expressed on the single mature B cell have the same binding specificity for antigen.

a. IgG & IgA

b. Ig G & IgM

c. Ig E & IgA

d. IgD & Ig M

55 / 60

Which transplant method would prevent the rejection of tissue after and organ transplant?

a. Using organs produced by genetic engineering to get rid of all proteins in the donated organs

b. Using an organ donated by a close relative because the proteins will always be identical to those of the patient

c. Using organs cloned from the cells of the patient

d. Using organs only from pigs or monkeys

56 / 60

In somatic recombination, the ____ rearranges first. The ____ region of the antibody molecule is generated via somatic recombination as it binds to the antigen and contains both a constan t region and a variable region .

a. Heavy chain; Fc

b. Light chain; Fab

c. Light chain; Fc

d. Heavy chain; Fab

57 / 60

On a serial dilution with the following tube set u p, 1:2, 1:4, 2:8, 1:16, 1:32, and 1:64 , there is no visible agglutination in the 1:64. What is the titer of the antibody?

a. 16

b. 32

c. Cannot determine

d. 64

58 / 60

Which of the i mmunoglobulin that has different subtypes ?

a. IgM & IgD

b. IgE & IgG

c. IgG & IgA

d. IgG & IgM

59 / 60

What is the major function of C-Reactive protein (CRP)?

a. Causes vasodilation

b. Helps to form clots

c. Acts as an opsonin

d. Binds hemoglobin

60 / 60

All of the following are functions of IgG EXCEPT

a. Cross the placenta

b. Facilitate ADCC

c. Opsonize bacteria.

d. Be secreted into mucus

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The average score is 87%

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Immunologie Générale Et Appliquée Test

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