/56 238 Virologie Preparation (Pr. Heng Kanika) 1 / 56 1) Which of the following best describes the initial site of infection for the influenza virus? a. Skin b. Upper respiratory tract c. Central nervous system d. Gastrointestinal tract 2 / 56 2) What triggers the reactivation of latent HSV-1, leading to recurrent outbreaks? a. Environmental factors such as UV light, stress, or immunosuppression b. Physical injury c. Changes in diet d. Bacterial co-infection 3 / 56 3) Which of the following populations is at increased risk for severe influenza complications? a. Young adults b. Individuals with no underlying health conditions c. Individuals vaccinated against influenza d. Older adults, individuals with chronic medical conditions, and those with weakened immune systems 4 / 56 4) Which antiviral medication is commonly used for treatment of influenza? a. Amoxicillin b. Acyclovir c. Metronidazole d. Oseltamivir 5 / 56 5) During reactivation, HSV-2 travels from the dorsal root ganglia to which site? a. Gastrointestinal tract b. Genital mucosa c. Respiratory tract d. Central nervous system 6 / 56 6) Which of the following diagnostic methods can differentiate between influenza A and influenza B viruses? a. Rapid influenza diagnostic test (RIDT) b. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) c. Reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) d. Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) test 7 / 56 7) What type of vaccine is most commonly used for influenza immunization? a. Inactivated vaccine b. Live attenuated vaccine c. Subunit vaccine d. Toxoid vaccine 8 / 56 8) What advice should be given to this patient to prevent the spread of influenza to others? a. Use antibiotics prophylactically Practice good hand hygiene and wear a mask b. Avoid exercise c. Increase vitamin C intake d. Use antibiotics prophylactically 9 / 56 9) What is the role of glycoproteins on the surface of HSV-1 in its pathogenesis? a. They neutralize host antibodies b. They enable the virus to bind to and enter host cells c. They degrade host cell DNA d. They inhibit host cell apoptosis 10 / 56 10) Where does HSV-2 establish latency in the body after the initial infection? a. Bone marrow b. Lymph nodes c. Bloodstream d. Dorsal root ganglia 11 / 56 11) What role do host cell receptors play in the pathogenesis of influenza? a. They act as entry points for the virus by binding to HA b. They degrade viral RNA c. They facilitate the assembly of viral particles d. They produce antiviral cytokines 12 / 56 12) What triggers the reactivation of latent HSV-2, leading to recurrent outbreaks? a. Antiviral medication b. Environmental factors such as stress, illness, or immunosuppression c. High-fiber diet d. Use of hormonal contraceptives 13 / 56 13) Which of the following statements is true regarding viral culture for influenza diagnosis? a. It is the most rapid method for detecting influenza b. It allows for antiviral susceptibility testing c. It provides results within 30 minutes d. It is less accurate than RIDTs 14 / 56 14) What is the main advantage of using RT-PCR over other diagnostic methods for influenza? a. Lower cost b. Faster results c. Higher specificity and sensitivity d. Easier to perform 15 / 56 15) Which laboratory test is considered the gold standard for diagnosing influenza virus infection? a. Viral culture b. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) c. Rapid influenza diagnostic test (RIDT) d. Reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) 16 / 56 16) What is the most common site for Herpes simplex 1 virus? a. Respiratory tract b. Gastrointestinal tract c. Genital area d. Oropharyngeal region 17 / 56 17) Which of the following is a common reason for false-negative results in rapid influenza diagnostic tests (RIDTs)? a. Testing too early in the illness b. High viral load c. Use of nasopharyngeal swabs d. High sensitivity of the test 18 / 56 18) Which of the following is the most appropriate specimen for laboratory diagnosis of influenza? a. Blood sample b. Nasopharyngeal swab c. Stool sample d. Urine sample 19 / 56 19) Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom of influenza? a. Muscle aches b. Runny nose c. High fever d. Dry cough 20 / 56 20) How does HSV-1 differ from HSV-2 in terms of typical site of infection? a. HSV-1 typically causes oral infections, while HSV-2 causes genital infections b. Both HSV-1 and HSV-2 exclusively cause genital infections c. Both HSV-1 and HSV-2 exclusively cause oral infections d. HSV-1 typically causes genital infections, while HSV-2 causes oral infections 21 / 56 21) Which laboratory test is considered the gold standard for diagnosing HSV-2 infection? a. Rapid antigen test b. Tzanck smear c. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) d. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) 22 / 56 22) What is the primary function of the viral RNA-dependent RNA polymerase in the influenza virus life cycle? a. To degrade host cell RNA b. To integrate viral RNA into the host genome c. To translate viral proteins d. To replicate the viral RNA genome 23 / 56 23) What is the significance of the tegument protein in the HSV-1 virion? a. It facilitates viral entry into the host cell b. It initiates the replication process once inside the host cell c. It protects the viral DNA from degradation d. It helps the virus to evade the host immune response 24 / 56 24) Why is it important to receive an annual influenza vaccination? a. The influenza virus undergoes frequent antigenic changes b. It prevents all types of respiratory infections c. It guarantees 100% protection against the flu d. It is only necessary for individuals with chronic conditions 25 / 56 25) Which of the following triggers can precipitate an HSV-1 outbreak? a. High-fiber diet b. Regular exercise c. Sun exposure and stress d. Antibiotic use 26 / 56 26) Which immune response is primarily responsible for controlling HSV-1 reactivation? a. Complement system b. Innate immunity c. Humoral immunity d. Cell-mediated immunity 27 / 56 27) Mr.H.E , 30 years old, presents to the pharmacy complaining of sudden onset fever, chills, sore throat, dry cough and muscle aches. He mentions several of her colleagues at work have been sick with similar symptoms. He has no significant medical history and is not currently taking any medications. He has not received her annual influenza vaccine. Which of the following viruses is most likely responsible for the patient’s symptoms? a. Coronavirus b. Influenza virus c. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) d. Rhinovirus 28 / 56 28) Which antiviral medication can be prescribed to treat influenza and potentially reduce the duration of symptoms? a. Acyclovir b. Oseltamivir c. Azithromycin d. Clarithromycin 29 / 56 29) Why might viral culture still be used despite the availability of faster diagnostic methods like RT-PCR? a. It is more sensitive than RT-PCR b. It provides rapid results c. It allows for a detailed study of the virus and its properties d. It is less expensive than RT-PCR 30 / 56 30) Which of the following reasons is the influenza vaccine recommended annually? a. Immunity from the vaccine only lasts a few months b. The influenza virus mutates frequently c. The vaccine can only be administered in the fall d. The vaccine loses its effectiveness after one year 31 / 56 31) What is the primary reason for the annual variation in the influenza vaccine composition? a. The influenza virus undergoes frequent genetic reassortment and mutations b. Public demand for different formulations c. The immune response to the vaccine diminishes over time d. Manufacturing processes change yearly 32 / 56 32) Which of the following preventive measures should be recommended to the patient to reduce the risk of influenza transmission? a. Hand hygiene and wearing a mask in public b. Exercising regularly c. Taking daily vitamin C supplements d. Using antibiotics prophylactically 33 / 56 33) Which of the following is a typical symptom distinguishing influenza from the common cold? a. High fever b. Sore throat c. Mild headache d. Runny nose 34 / 56 34) During reactivation, HSV-1 travels from the dorsal root ganglia to which site? a. Skin and mucous membranes b. Bloodstream c. Gastrointestinal tract d. Bone marrow 35 / 56 35) Which cells are primarily infected by HSV-1 during the initial infection? a. Neurons b. T cells c. Red blood cells d. Epithelial cells 36 / 56 36) Which cells are primarily infected by HSV-2 during the initial infection? a. Red blood cells b. Hepatocytes c. T cells d. Epithelial cells 37 / 56 37) How does HSV-2 typically remain in the body between outbreaks? a. It is completely eradicated by the immune system b. It is continuously shed from the skin c. It remains dormant in the dorsal root ganglia d. It circulates in the bloodstream 38 / 56 38) Which of the following describes the process of antigenic shift in the influenza virus? a. Major changes due to reassortment of gene segments between different strains b. Minor changes in the amino acid sequence of HA and NA proteins c. Gradual accumulation of mutations over time d. Replication errors during RNA synthesis 39 / 56 39) A 32-year-old female presents to the pharmacy with a painful, burning sensation on her lip that started two days ago and has now developed into blisters. She reports a history of similar episodes occurring about once a year, often triggered by stress or sun exposure. The patient is otherwise healthy and not on any regular medication. Which virus is most likely responsible for the patient’s symptoms? a. Herpes Simplex Virus Type 1 (HSV-1) b. Cytomegalovirus c. Varicella-zoster virus d. Epstein-Barr virus 40 / 56 40) Which of the following antiviral medications is most commonly used to treat HSV-1 outbreaks? a. Amoxicillin b. Acyclovir c. Oseltamivir d. Zidovudine 41 / 56 41) If the patient’s symptoms of Influenza do not improve or worsen, what should be the next step? a. Discontinue the use of the Ventolin inhaler b. Seek medical evaluation for possible complications c. Start a course of antibiotics d. Increase the dose of over-the-counter medications 42 / 56 42) Which antiviral medication is most commonly used to treat HSV-2 outbreaks? a. Amoxicillin b. Valacyclovir c. Oseltamivir d. Zidovudine 43 / 56 43) How does the neuraminidase (NA) protein of the influenza virus contribute to viral pathogenesis? a. It helps the virus to escape from the host cell after replication b. It binds to sialic acid residues on host cells to initiate infection c. It integrates viral DNA into the host genome d. It neutralizes host immune responses 44 / 56 44) Where does HSV-1 establish latency in the body after the initial infection? a. Dorsal root ganglia b. Lymph nodes c. Liver d. Spleen 45 / 56 45) Why might PCR be preferred over viral culture for diagnosing HSV-1? a. Viral culture is more invasive b. PCR is less sensitive c. PCR is less expensive d. PCR has a faster turnaround time 46 / 56 46) Why might PCR be preferred over viral culture for diagnosing HSV-2? a. PCR is less sensitive b. Viral culture is more invasive c. PCR is less expensive d. PCR has a faster turnaround time 47 / 56 47) What is the best course of action for managing the patient with influenza infection? a. Recommend rest, fluids, and over-the-counter medications for symptom relief b. Prescribe antibiotics c. Recommend rest, fluids, and over-the-counter medications for symptom relief d. Advise discontinuation of asthma medications 48 / 56 48) What preventive measure can be recommended to this patient to reduce the frequency of HSV-1 outbreaks? a. Regular use of antibiotics b. Increasing daily intake of vitamin C c. Avoiding known triggers such as stress and sun exposure d. Applying antifungal creams regularly 49 / 56 49) How does HSV-1 typically remain in the body between outbreaks? a. It circulates in the bloodstream b. It is continuously shed from the skin c. It is completely eradicated by the immune system d. It remains dormant in the dorsal root ganglia 50 / 56 50) Which surface protein on the influenza virus facilitates its entry into host cells? a. Hemagglutinin (HA) b. Reverse transcriptase c. Neuraminidase (NA) d. DNA polymerase 51 / 56 51) How soon after the onset of symptoms of Influenza should antiviral treatment be initiated for maximum effectiveness? a. Within 72 hours b. Within 24 hours c. Within 12 hours d. Within 48 hours 52 / 56 52) Which of the following is a common complication of influenza, especially in high-risk populations? a. Urinary tract infection b. Gastroenteritis c. Bacterial pneumonia d. Meningitis 53 / 56 53) A 30-year-old female presents to the pharmacy with complaints of painful genital sores that appeared three days ago. She reports feeling feverish, experiencing headache, and having swollen lymph nodes in her groin. She mentions that she had a similar episode about a year ago, which resolved on its own. She is in a monogamous relationship but had multiple partners in the past. She has not been diagnosed with any sexually transmitted infections before.Which virus is most likely responsible for the patient’s symptoms? a. Treponema pallidum b. Herpes Simplex Virus Type 2 (HSV-2) c. Chlamydia trachomatis d. Human papillomavirus (HPV) 54 / 56 54) What is a major limitation of rapid influenza diagnostic tests (RIDTs)? a. High cost b. Long turnaround time c. Requirement for specialized laboratory equipment d. Lower sensitivity compared to RT-PCR 55 / 56 55) Which laboratory test is considered the gold standard for diagnosing HSV-1 infection? a. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) b. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) c. Rapid antigen test d. Tzanck smear 56 / 56 56) Which type of sample is least likely to be used for diagnosing influenza? a. Blood sample b. Throat swab c. Nasopharyngeal swab d. Sputum sample Your score isThe average score is 89% Facebook 0% Restart quiz Any comments? Send feedback