Immunologie Test

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Immunologie Test

1 / 60

Quel complément est l’élément central du système d’activation ? citer la phrase juste

a. -Le complément C5 est le complément central du système

b. -Le complément C3 est le complément central du système

c. -Le complément C2 est le complément central du système

d. -Le complément C4 est le complément central du système

e. -Le complément C1 est le complément central du système

2 / 60

Des voies d’activation différentes sont utilisés aboutissant á la formation d’un complexe lysant la membrane cellulaire. Citer la phrase fausse :

a. -La voie d’activation par des lectines seule

b. -La voie d’activation par voie d’hématopoïèse

c. -La voie d’activation par voie classique seule

d. –La voie d’activation par voie alternative seule

3 / 60

Principales activités du complément, citer la phrase juste :

a. – Processus pathologiques conduisant á la réaction inflammatoire des cellules par des compléments tous seuls.

b. – Processus pathologiques conduisant á la réaction de production des immunoglobulines.

c. -Les compléments ne sont pas utilisés comme des réactifs de laboratoires

d. -Processus pathologiques conduisant à des perforations et lésions des tissus infectés par des protéines de compléments

e. – Processus pathologiques conduisant á la réaction inflammation par des interactions des cellules.

4 / 60

Donner une réponse juste, les Monocytes/Macrophage :

a. – Présentent l’antigène aux lymphocytes helper CD4, ensuite lymphocytes B et T

b. -Ont pour rôle la régulation du système immunitaire

c. -Provient de l’organe lymphoïde secondaire

d. – Ont pour rôle de cytotoxicité

e. – N’ont pas secrété les chimiokines

5 / 60

Parmi les propositions suivantes, indiquez celle qui est exacte ( L’histamine est :

a. – Un produit libéré lors du processus inflammatoire

b. – Un non stimulant des sécrétions de l'estomac

c. – Un produit de transamination de l'histidine

d. – Le produit de décarboxylation de molécules amine carboxylé

e. – Un vasoconstricteur puissant

6 / 60

La définition de l’antigène et l’haptène par rapport au corps infectant. Citer l’items qui est juste :

a. -L ’haptène constitue tout seul le corps infectant ;

b. – L’antigène constitue á lui seul le corps infectant ;

c. -Les macrophages, les polynucléaires, les monocytes présentent seul l’haptène aux autres cellules du système immunitaire dans l’organe lymphoïde secondaire.

d. – Les macrophages présentent seul l’haptène aux autres cellules du système immunitaires.

e. -L’antigène et l’haptène sont les constituants d’un antigène

7 / 60

Les compléments natifs sont dépourvus d’effets biologiques, un stimulus est nécessaire pour activer les composés natifs par voie classiques, comme un stimulus, citer l’item faux :

a. – Certaines bacteries.

b. – Immunoglobulines agrées

c. – Les complexes antigènes-anticorps.

d. – Certains virus.

e. – Certaines protéines comme, protéines réactive C, plasmines, thrombines

8 / 60

Au cours de la réponse naturelle ou innée, il est apparu lors de la réaction à l’inflammation quelques éléments, citer l’élément qui est faux :

a. – Pâleur

b. – Rougeur

c. – Protéine d’inflammation

d. -Douleur

e. – Chaleur

9 / 60

Dans le monde entier quelques maladies ont été déjà éradiquée de la surface du globe par la vaccination massive, citer la phrase juste.

a. -La tuberculose est déjà éradiquée de la surface de la terre

b. -Fièvres jaune et les dengues sont éradiquée de la surface de la terre

c. -Aucune maladie infectieuse n’est pas encore éradiquée de surface du globe terrestre

d. -Les fièvres typhoïdes sont aussi déjà éradiquées

e. – La variole, la poliomyélite et la rougeole ont été déjà éradiquée de la surface de la terre

10 / 60

Dans une réponse antigénique B, les cellules Th2 recruté et activé par la cellules présentatrices de l’antigène ayant sur sa surface des molécules de peptide porté par le CMH, quelle est la fonction immunologique de cellules Th2, citer la phrase juste

a. -Capacité de manifester la spécificité seule avec les molécules du complément, des cellules cibles infectées ;

b. – Capacité de libérer les molécules plasmatiques IL4, IL5, IL10, IL15 qui activer la différenciation et la prolifération des lymphocytes B en plasmocytes capable de libérer les anticorps ;

c. -Capacité de manifester la spécificité seule avec les virus des cellules cibles infectées

d. – Capacité de manifester la double spécificité à la fois avec les virus et les molécules CMH, des cellules cibles infectées

e. -Capacité de manifester la spécificité seule avec les molécules CMH avec les cellules cibles infectées ;

11 / 60

Fonction des cellules dendritiques ? une phrase qui est fausse ?

a. -Prennent source dans la moelle

b. -Participer comme interface entre l’immunité humorale et cellulaire

c. -Agit en particulier avec les hématies

d. -Sont en première lignes pour capturer les antigènes,

e. -Agit en particulier avec les lymphocytes B et T

12 / 60

What is the main function of Human Leukocyte Antigen (HLA)?

a. ) Regulating blood pressure

b. ) Presenting antigens to immune cells

c. ) Storing genetic information

d. ) Carrying oxygen in the blood

e. ) Producing hormones

13 / 60

Which HIV strain is most common worldwide?

a. ) HIV-1

b. ) HIV-3

c. ) HIV-5

d. ) HIV-4

e. ) HIV-2

14 / 60

What is the primary function of the immune system?

a. ) Digest food

b. ) Produce energy

c. ) Protect the body from infections

d. ) Regulate body temperature

e. ) Transport oxygen

15 / 60

What is the role of fluorescent probes in qPCR?

a. ) Measure viral proteins

b. ) Visualize infected cells

c. ) Increase sample volume

d. ) Bind to antibodies

e. ) Detect and quantify viral nucleic acids

16 / 60

Which of the following is NOT a feature of AIDS?

a. ) Severe immunosuppression

b. ) Increased susceptibility to opportunistic infections

c. ) Development of certain cancers

d. ) High CD4+ T cell count

e. ) Progressive depletion of CD4+ T cells

17 / 60

Which HLA class is involved in organ transplant compatibility?

a. ) None of the above

b. ) Class I

c. ) Class III

d. ) Both Class I and Class II

e. ) Class II

18 / 60

Which of the following detects antigen-antibody interactions using latex beads?

a. ) Immunochromatographic assay

b. ) Latex agglutination test

c. ) ELISA

d. ) Flow cytometry

e. ) PCR

19 / 60

What type of immune cells are predominantly found in the lymphoid tissues during acute HIV infection?

a. ) Neutrophils

b. ) CD8+ T cells

c. ) Dendritic cells

d. ) CD4+ T cells

e. ) B cells

20 / 60

Which of the following cells does the complement system primarily target for destruction?

a. ) Bacteria

b. ) T lymphocytes

c. ) Endothelial cells

d. ) Virus-infected cells

e. ) Red blood cells

21 / 60

Which assay is used to measure the number of infectious virus particles in a sample?

a. ) ELISA

b. ) Hemagglutination assay

c. ) Viral plaque assay

d. ) qPCR

e. ) Western blot

22 / 60

Which type of immunity is acquired after an infection?

a. ) Artificial

b. ) Passive

c. ) Adaptive

d. ) Innate

e. ) Autoimmune

23 / 60

Which type of immune cell directly presents antigens to T cells?

a. ) B cells

b. ) Dendritic cells

c. ) Macrophages

d. ) Eosinophils

e. ) Neutrophils

24 / 60

What is the main advantage of digital PCR (dPCR) over qPCR?

a. ) More affordable

b. ) Faster processing

c. ) Absolute quantification of viral DNA/RNA

d. ) Less sensitive

e. ) Requires less sample preparation

25 / 60

What happens when a T cell receptor binds to its specific antigen on MHC molecules?

a. ) It activates the complement system

b. ) It initiates T cell activation and differentiation

c. ) It promotes phagocytosis of the antigen

d. ) It stimulates antibody production

e. ) It induces apoptosis of the infected cell

26 / 60

In a competitive ELISA, how is antigen concentration determined?

a. ) Based on light scattering

b. ) Directly proportional to signal

c. ) Through radioactivity measurement

d. ) Inversely proportional to signal

e. ) By antigen migration on a strip

27 / 60

Which immune cells first recognize pathogens?

a. ) Plasma cells

b. ) B cells

c. ) Natural Killer (NK) cells

d. ) T cells

e. ) Antigen-presenting cells (APCs)

28 / 60

Which method is most commonly used to quantify viral RNA in an infection?

a. ) Western blot

b. ) Hemagglutination assay

c. ) ELISA

d. ) qPCR

e. ) Flow cytometry

29 / 60

Which type of immune cell does Class I HLA molecules present antigens to?

a. ) Helper T cells

b. ) B cells

c. ) Natural killer cells

d. ) Dendritic cells

e. ) Cytotoxic T cells

30 / 60

Which of the following best defines active immunotherapy?

a. ) The body produces its own immune response

b. ) Treatment with antivenom

c. ) Immediate immune protection

d. ) Temporary immunity

e. ) Administration of pre-made antibodies

31 / 60

Which test is preferred for quantifying immunoglobulin levels?

a. ) Nephelometry

b. ) ELISA

c. ) Western blot

d. ) PCR

e. ) RIA

32 / 60

Which test is widely used to confirm syphilis?

a. ) PCR

b. ) Western blot

c. ) ELISA

d. ) Agglutination test

e. ) RIA

33 / 60

How does the immune system typically respond to acute HIV infection?

a. ) By completely shutting down immune activity

b. ) With a strong, specific immune response that clears the virus

c. ) With a mild response that allows the virus to replicate easily

d. ) By producing no detectable antibodies

e. ) With an overwhelming inflammatory response

34 / 60

Which test would be used for detecting autoimmune disorders?

a. ) Flow cytometry

b. ) PCR

c. ) Hemagglutination

d. ) RIA

e. ) ELISA

35 / 60

The complement system helps the immune system by:

a. ) Controlling heart rate

b. ) Synthesizing vitamins

c. ) Producing insulin

d. ) Attacking pathogens directly

e. ) Breaking down fats

36 / 60

Which of the following is an example of passive immunotherapy?

a. ) CAR-T cell therapy

b. ) Rituximab (monoclonal antibody)

c. ) Immune checkpoint inhibitors

d. ) Cancer vaccines

e. ) HPV vaccine

37 / 60

Which is a major advantage of active immunotherapy over passive immunotherapy?

a. ) Immediate protection

b. ) Less expensive

c. ) Short-term effect

d. ) Requires less medical intervention

e. ) Long-lasting immunity

38 / 60

Which of the following is a potential complication of chronic HIV infection?

a. ) Heart disease

b. ) Stroke

c. ) Parkinson's disease

d. ) Arthritis

e. ) Tuberculosis

39 / 60

Which type of cell is involved in killing virus-infected cells directly?

a. ) Cytotoxic T cells

b. ) Helper T cells

c. ) Macrophages

d. ) B cells

e. ) Neutrophils

40 / 60

Which of the following is the most likely outcome in a person with an undetectable viral load after long-term ART treatment?

a. ) Immune system recovery

b. ) Complete eradication of HIV

c. ) Infection of CD8+ T cells

d. ) Uncontrolled viral replication

e. ) Development of AIDS

41 / 60

Which diagnostic method is primarily used for viral load quantification?

a. ) ELISA

b. ) Western blot

c. ) Turbidimetry

d. ) PCR

e. ) Hemagglutination

42 / 60

Which of the following is a feature of IgG antibodies?

a. ) They are the most abundant in mucosal surfaces

b. ) They are involved in allergic reactions

c. ) They can cross the placenta to provide immunity to the fetus

d. ) They are the least abundant in the blood

e. ) They are produced during the initial immune response

43 / 60

What is the viral load in an untreated person with AIDS typically associated with?

a. ) Low viral replication

b. ) High immune function

c. ) High replication rate of HIV

d. ) Viral clearance

e. ) Complete viral suppression

44 / 60

What triggers inflammation?

a. ) Complement activation

b. ) Memory cell formation

c. ) T cell activation

d. ) Release of histamines and cytokines

e. ) Phagocytosis

45 / 60

What is the main function of a secondary antibody in indirect ELISA?

a. ) Directly binding the antigen

b. ) Enhancing fluorescence

c. ) Binding to primary antibodies

d. ) Detecting nucleic acids

e. ) Binding to a membrane

46 / 60

Which immune cells are primarily involved in the clearance of pathogens during a viral infection?

a. ) Macrophages and natural killer cells

b. ) Eosinophils

c. ) Mast cells

d. ) Neutrophils

e. ) T cells and B cells

47 / 60

What is a key characteristic of adaptive immunity?

a. ) Inflammation

b. ) Immunological memory

c. ) Immediate response

d. ) Physical barriers

e. ) Non-specific defense

48 / 60

Which of the following is not a lymphoid organ?

a. ) Spleen

b. ) Lymph nodes

c. ) Thymus

d. ) Pancreas

e. ) Bone marrow

49 / 60

How is the classical complement pathway activated?

a. ) Direct recognition of bacteria

b. ) Spontaneous activation on pathogen surfaces

c. ) Interaction with T cells

d. ) Mannose-binding lectin (MBL) binding

e. ) Antigen-antibody complex formation

50 / 60

Which of the following diseases is associated with specific HLA alleles?

a. ) Diabetes type 2

b. ) Rheumatoid arthritis

c. ) Common cold

d. ) Malaria

e. ) Asthma

51 / 60

What is the main purpose of convalescent plasma therapy?

a. ) To stimulate T-cell production

b. ) To generate an immune memory

c. ) To deliver genetic material

d. ) To provide specific antibodies against an infection

e. ) To suppress autoimmunity

52 / 60

Complement proteins are primarily produced by:

a. ) Lymphocytes

b. ) Neutrophils

c. ) Liver cells

d. ) Platelets

e. ) Macrophages

53 / 60

What is the function of the Fc region of an antibody?

a. ) Neutralize toxins

b. ) Bind to T cell receptors

c. ) Bind to the complement system or immune cells

d. ) Bind to the antigen

e. ) Activate macrophages

54 / 60

What chromosome contains the genes for the HLA system?

a. ) Chromosome 6

b. ) Chromosome 1

c. ) Chromosome 21

d. ) Chromosome 10

e. ) Chromosome 12

55 / 60

What does opsonization refer to in the immune response?

a. ) Apoptosis of infected cells

b. ) Coating pathogens with molecules to enhance phagocytosis

c. ) Directly destroying pathogens

d. ) Production of antibodies

e. ) Activation of T cells

56 / 60

What is the primary difference between MHC Class I and MHC Class II molecules?

a. ) MHC Class I is involved in autoimmune responses

b. ) MHC Class I presents antigens to helper T cells, while MHC Class II presents antigens to cytotoxic T cells

c. ) MHC Class I is found on all nucleated cells, while MHC Class II is found only on antigen- presenting cells

d. ) MHC Class I activates B cells, while MHC Class II activates T cells

e. ) MHC Class I presents extracellular antigens, while MHC Class II presents intracellular antigens

57 / 60

What is the main role of antibodies in the immune system?

a. ) Produce cytokines

b. ) Activate T cells

c. ) Destroy infected cells

d. ) Phagocytose pathogens

e. ) Neutralize pathogens

58 / 60

Which immune cells recognize antigens without prior exposure?

a. ) Plasma cells

b. ) Macrophages

c. ) Dendritic cells

d. ) Natural Killer (NK) cells

e. ) Memory B cells

59 / 60

What is the function of histamines in an allergic response?

a. ) Increase vascular permeability

b. ) Activate B cells

c. ) Stimulate memory cells

d. ) Destroy antigens

e. ) Reduce inflammation

60 / 60

What is the primary function of antibodies in neutralization?

a. ) Bind to toxins or pathogens and prevent them from interacting with host cells

b. ) Release histamine

c. ) Phagocytose pathogens

d. ) Activate cytotoxic T cells

e. ) Activate the complement system

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