/50 1112 Immunologie Générale Et Appliquée Preparation (Dr. Ly Nary) 1 / 50 1) Most naïve T cell activation occurs where and in response to what? a. In secondary lymphoid organs in response to antigen presentation by dendritic cells b. In the skin in response to cytokines c. In the thymus in response to antigen presentation by thymic medullary epithelial cells d. In the infected tissues in response to antigen presentation by macrophages 2 / 50 2) The spleen is largely involved with the response to antigens which are in the? a. Lungs b. Gut c. Blood d. Tissues 3 / 50 3) In DiGeorge syndrome, the thymus fails to develop. Which of the following characterizes the immunodeficiency state in this syndrome? a. Deficiency in monocytes and tissue macrophages b. Deficiency in T lymphocytes and associated defects in cell-mediated immunity c. Defect in naive B cell activation and antibody production in response to bacterial polysaccharides d. Deficiency in B cell maturation 4 / 50 4) Which enzyme contributes to antigen receptor junctional diversity by adding random nucleotides at the junctions between V, D, and J segments and is also useful as a marker of neoplasia of pro-B and pro- T cells? a. DNA polymerase b. DNA-dependent protein kinase c. Recombinase activating gene-1 (RAG-1) d. Terminal deoxyribonucleotidyl transferase (TdT) 5 / 50 5) Where B lymphocytes mature? a. Bone marrow b. Thymus c. Spleen d. Lymph nodes 6 / 50 6) The secretion of antibodies by lymphocyte B cells provides? a. Passive immunity b. Cell-mediated immunity c. Humoral immunity d. Permanent immunity 7 / 50 7) During the negative selection of T-cells in the thymus? a. T-cells with CD-8 receptors on their surface undergo apoptosis b. T-cells that recognize "self" antigens undergo apoptosis c. The surviving T-cells migrate to the bone marrow d. A majority of the cells survive to enter the circulation 8 / 50 8) The most important costimulators for naïve T cell activation are which of the following? a. B7-1 and B7-2 b. PD-L1 and PD-L2 c. ICOS Ligand d. FAS Ligand 9 / 50 9) Plasma cells? a. Destroy aged red blood cells. b. Are part of the adaptive immune system response. c. Require epithelial reticular cells in the thymus in order to mature. d. Recognize and kill cells coated with antibodies. 10 / 50 10) Which of the following mechanisms contributes most to both Ig and TCR diversity? a. Multiple possible combinations of the different V, D, and J segments b. Isotype switching c. Polymorphism d. Changes in the nucleotide sequences at the junctions between recombined V, D, and J segments 11 / 50 11) Which of the following molecules or molecular complexes functions to display foreign antigens on the surface of cells? a. Co-receptor CD8 b. T-cell receptor (TCR) c. Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) d. Co-receptor CD4 12 / 50 12) Cytokines attract which of the following to the affected tissue? a. Basophils b. Lymphocytes c. All of the above d. Macrophages 13 / 50 13) The proteins secreted by plasma cells are called? a. Antibodies b. Complement c. Antigens d. Cytokines 14 / 50 14) Langerhans’ cells are found in? a. Periarteriolar lymphoid sheaths b. Lymph nodes c. Lymph d. Skin 15 / 50 15) What kind of cell is most numerous in the periarterial lymphatic sheath (PALS) of the spleen? a. B-lymphocytes b. Plasma cells c. T-lymphocytes d. Macrophages 16 / 50 16) Which subsets of T cells recognize antigens presented by class II MHC molecules? a. CD4+ helper T cells b. CD8+ cytotoxic T cells c. Natural killer T cells d. Memory T cells 17 / 50 17) When a B-lymphocyte encounters a foreign antigen with the appropriate specificity? a. The cell begins to secrete complement. b. The antigen is bound by the co-receptor CD4. c. The cell rapidly differentiates into a natural killer cell. d. he cell undergoes clonal proliferation. 18 / 50 18) Neutrophils? a. Are antigen-presenting cells. b. Mature in the thymus. c. Secrete antibodies in response to antigens. d. Are part of the innate immune system response 19 / 50 19) The site of T-cell maturation is the? a. Thymic cortex b. Peyer's patch c. Splenic red pulp d. Lymph node germinal center 20 / 50 20) Which of the following cell types is NOT known to act as an antigen-presenting cell for CD4+ T cells? a. B lymphocytes b. NK cells c. Dendritic cells d. Macrophages 21 / 50 21) Clonal selection occurs when a B-lymphocyte encounters? a. Cytokines b. T-lymphocytes c. Complement d. Antigen 22 / 50 22) When antigens enter through the skin, in what organs are they concentrated? a. Thymus b. Bone marrow c. Skin-draining lymph nodes d. Spleen 23 / 50 23) Tissue macrophages are derived from which type of circulating blood cell? a. Polymorphonuclear leukocyte b. Monocyte c. Small lymphocyte d. Basophil 24 / 50 24) A vaccine administered in the autumn of one year may protect against the prevalent strain of influenza virus that originated in Hong Kong that same year, but it will not protect against another strain of influenza virus that originated in Russia. This phenomenon illustrates which property of the adaptive immune system? a. Loss of memory b. Specificity c. Specialization d. Self tolerance 25 / 50 25) According to the clonal selection hypothesis, which of the following is correct? a. Antigen binding to a lymphocyte receptor selects that lymphocyte to die b. Clones of lymphocytes specific for antigens develop prior to exposure to the antigens c. Lymphocyte specificity is determined by exposure to an antigen d. Each clone of lymphocytes express receptors for many different antigens 26 / 50 26) Which of the following statements regarding the functional properties of cytokines is false? a. They exhibit synergistic or antagonistic properties. b. They assist in the regulation and development of immune effector cells. c. They often exhibit functional redundancy. d. They often display antigen specificity. 27 / 50 27) IL-1, IL-6, and TNF- are proinflammatory cytokines that are known to? a. All of the above b. Initiate acute-phase responses. c. Act in concert with chemokines to promote migration of inflammatory cells to sites of infection. d. Cause increased vascular permeability. 28 / 50 28) Which of the following cell types is a phagocyte? a. T lymphocyte b. Mast cell c. Natural killer cell d. Neutrophil 29 / 50 29) In both B and T cell development, there is stage when a pre-antigen receptor (pre B cell receptor or pre T cell receptor) is expressed. Which of the following accurately describes an important function of these pre-antigen receptors? a. Positively select for lymphocytes that have successfully undergone a first round of V-D-J recombination required to express functional antigen receptors b. Positively select lymphocytes that recognize microbial antigens c. Instruct the differentiation of the lymphocytes into different subsets of effector cells d. Negatively select for self-reactive lymphocytes 30 / 50 30) A drug that blocks the function of the chemokine receptor CCR7 would result in which of the following abnormalities? a. Absence of B cell follicles in the spleen b. Reduced blood neutrophil count c. Absence of follicular dendritic cells in lymph node follicles d. Reduced numbers of T cells in lymph nodes 31 / 50 31) The secondary, but not the primary, immune response is based on? a. Clonal selection b. Memory c. Complement activation d. Mast cell degranulation 32 / 50 32) Which one of the following is a primary lymphoid organ? a. Thymus b. Peyer's patch c. Spleen d. Lymph nodes 33 / 50 33) A 52-year-old man who receives radiation therapy and cytotoxic drugs for treatment of cancer sustains significant damage to his bone marrow. Which of the following changes will most likely occur? a. Decreased production of neutrophils and monocytes but not B lymphocytes b. Decreased production of B lymphocytes but not T lymphocytes c. Decreased production of monocytes but not B lymphocytes d. Decreased production of B and T lymphocytes, monocytes, neutrophils and red blood cells 34 / 50 34) The germinal center reaction generates long lived plasma cells which secrete protective high affinity B cells for many years. Where do these cells reside? a. Parathyroid b. Skin c. Thymus d. Bone marrow 35 / 50 35) The paracortical area of a lymph node comprises mainly? a. Macrophages b. T-cells c. Plasma cells d. Follicular dendritic cells 36 / 50 36) Which of the following can be accurately called a cytokine? a. A nuclear protein that regulates lymphocyte gene expression b. An antibody secreted by a B cell c. A lipid secreted by a Natural Killer cell that activates a B cell d. A protein secreted by a T lymphocyte that activates a macrophage 37 / 50 37) Which type of T cell lyses cells that have been infected with viruses? a. Suppressor T cells b. Inducer T cells c. Helper T cells d. Cytotoxic T cells 38 / 50 38) All secondary lymphoid tissues? a. Provide an environment for the maturation of lymphocytes. b. Filter foreign antigens from the lymph. c. Provide an optimal environment for the exposure of lymphocytes to antigens. d. Select against lymphocytes that recognize self-antigens. 39 / 50 39) The germinal center is an important site of? a. Hematopoiesis b. T-cell maturation. c. B-cell maturation. d. Initial germ line V gene rearrangement. 40 / 50 40) Lymphocytes? a. Enter the tissues and remain there for the rest of their life. b. When mature are only found in secondary lymphoid organs. c. Are only educated in the thymus. d. Recirculate between blood and lymphoid tissues. 41 / 50 41) At 15 months of age, a child received a measles-mumps-rubella vaccine (MMR). At age 22, she is living with a family in Mexico that has not been vaccinated and she is exposed to measles. Despite the exposure, she does not become infected. Which of the following properties of the adaptive immune system is best illustrated by this scenario? a. Specialization b. Diversity c. Specificity d. Memory 42 / 50 42) T-lymphocytes recognize antigen? a. Presented by MHC molecules on other cells b. Only if it has been present in the thymus during maturation of the T-cell c. If it occurs in a free molecular state d. By endocytosing and partially digesting it 43 / 50 43) At the peak of a CD8+ T cell response to a new microbe, what is the fold increase in the number of microbe-specific T cells in an individual compared to the number of naïve CD8+ T cells specific for the microbe before infection? a. 1000 b. 100 c. 10000 d. 100,000 44 / 50 44) Which of the following is not a function of the innate immune system? a. Rapidly respond to microbial infections by promoting acute inflammation b. Respond to microbial infections by inducing a state of long lived memory that prevents repeat infections by the same microbe c. Respond to damaged and dying host cells by inducing acute inflammation d. Respond to microbial infections by inducing expression of T cell costimulators on antigen presenting cells 45 / 50 45) Antigen-presenting cells? a. Display antigens using class II MHC. b. Recognize antigens bound to the major histocompatibility complex (MHC). c. Are required for B-cell activation. d. Express the T-cell receptor (TCR) on the cell surface. 46 / 50 46) A 5-year-old boy with recurrent infections is discovered to have a genetic defect that impairs B cell maturation. Which of the following abnormalities is most likely to be found in this patient? a. Hypocellular bone marrow b. Diminished parafollicular zones in lymph nodes c. Small thymus d. Absence of follicles in lymph nodes and spleen 47 / 50 47) A standard treatment of animal bite victims, when there is a possibility that the animal was infected with the rabies virus, is administration of human immunoglobulin preparations containing anti–rabies virus antibodies. Which type of immunity would be stablished by this treatment? a. Innate immunity b. Passive humoral immunity c. Active humoral immunity d. Active cell-mediated immunity 48 / 50 48) A one year old boy with a history of severe infections is found to have very few circulating mature T cells or NK cells, but normal numbers of B cells. Genetic studies reveal he has X-linked severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome. Defective signaling by the receptor for which cytokine is the underlying cause of this disease? a. IL-2 b. IL-1 c. IL-7 d. IL-4 49 / 50 49) Precursors of macrophages are called? a. Plasma cells b. T cells c. killer cells d. Monocytes 50 / 50 50) previously healthy 8-year-old boy is infected with an upper respiratory tract virus for the first time. During the first few hours of infection, which one of the following events occurs? a. The adaptive immune system responds rapidly to the virus and keeps the viral infection under control b. Passive immunity mediated by maternal antibodies limits the spread of infection. c. The innate immune system responds rapidly to the viral infection and keeps the viral infection under control. d. B and T lymphocytes recognize the virus and stimulate the innate immune response. A previously healthy Your score isThe average score is 89% Facebook 0% Restart quiz Any comments? 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