Immunologie Générale Et Appliquée Test

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1 / 60

The impact is:

a. The direct protection to a vaccinated individual as estimated from clinical trial

b. An estimate of the direct protection in a field study post licensure

c. The population level effect of a vaccination programme

d. An indirect effect of vaccination due to reduced disease transmission

2 / 60

Hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh blood group incompatibility requires maternal antibody to enter the fetal bloodstream. Therefore, the mediator of this disease is:

a. Ig M antibody

b. Ig G antibody

c. Ig E antibody

d. Ig A antibody

3 / 60

All the given vaccines are attenuated or inactivated whole pathogen except:

a. Hepatitis A

b. Sabin

c. Salk

d. Tetanus

4 / 60

The following statements are related to hepatitis B and pregnancy which statement is incorrect?

a. Three possible routes for transmission of HBV: Transplacental, Natal and Horizontal

b. The infants then receive two additional doses of HBV vaccine at ages 1-2 M & 6-8 M

c. Both active and passive immunizations are used for HBsAg-positive mothers

d. HBV vaccine and HBIG are given at same time to 2 sites in 12-24 h of delivery

5 / 60

All are the measure for post rabies exposure prophylaxis, but except one?

a. Vaccine administration

b. Wound treatment

c. Suture the wound

d. Rabies immunoglobulin

6 / 60

The ideal storage conditions of adjuvanted vaccines in a refrigerator are between:

a. 0 degree to 3 degree

b. 5 degree to 10 degree

c. 1 degree to 3 degree

d. 2 degree to 8 degree

7 / 60

The immunoglobulins transport across epithelium:

a. Ig A, Ig M

b. All immunoglobulins

c. Ig A and Ig G

d. Ig A, Ig M and Ig G

8 / 60

All are therapeutic applications of polyclonal antibodies but except one?

a. Hematologic disorders

b. Neurologic disorders

c. Skin diseases

d. Laboratory tests

9 / 60

In an immune response the type of cell which gets activated earliest is:

a. Cytotoxic T cells

b. Helper T cells

c. Plasma cells

d. Killer T cells

10 / 60

Vaccination is an example of?

a. Naturally acquired passive immunity

b. Naturally acquired active immunity

c. Artificially acquired active immunity

d. Artificially acquired passive immunity

11 / 60

What is the mode of administration for anti-measles vaccine?

a. Oral route

b. Intradermal route (ID)

c. Subcutaneous route (SC)

d. Intramuscular (IM)

12 / 60

All are examples of names of monoclonal antibodies but except one?

a. Infliximab

b. Tamoxifen

c. Transtuzumab

d. Rituximab

13 / 60

The naive T cells are:

a. Mature T cells that located in germinal centre of lymph node

b. Mature recirculating T cells that have not yet encountered their antigens

c. Immature recirculating T cells that have not yet encountered their antigens

d. Mature suppressor T cells that have not yet encountered their antigens

14 / 60

The immunoglobulins participated in complement system formation are:

a. Ig G and Ig M

b. Ig D and Ig M

c. Ig G and Ig A

d. Ig G and Ig E

15 / 60

What vaccine should not be frozen:

a. Chickenpox vaccine

b. MMR vaccine

c. Live attenuated vaccine

d. Adjuvanted Vaccine

16 / 60

The class of immunoglobulin present in highest concentration in blood of a human newborn is:

a. Ig D

b. Ig A

c. Ig G

d. Ig M

17 / 60

The circulation of a two month old breast-fed baby will contain maternal:

a. IgD

b. IgG

c. IgA

d. IgM

18 / 60

An immunoglobulin is a:

a. Polysaccharide

b. Glycolipid

c. Protein

d. Glycoprotein

19 / 60

Which of the following is the site of T cell maturation?

a. Spleen

b. Bone marrow

c. Appendix

d. Thymus

20 / 60

Graft and tumor rejection are mediated primarily by:

a. Non–complement-fixing antibodies

b. Cytotoxic T cells

c. Helper T cells

d. Phagocytic cells

21 / 60

The antibody-binding site is formed primarily by:

a. The variable regions of L chains

b. The constant regions of H and L chains

c. The hypervariable regions of H and L chains

d. The variable regions of H chains

22 / 60

The classical pathway of complement activation is:

a. Ig M pathway

b. Ig A pathway

c. Lectin pathway

d. Toxins pathway

23 / 60

To which one of the following groups would it be acceptable to give a live attenuated viral vaccine?

a. Children under 8 years of age

b. Pregnant mothers

c. Patients treated with radiotherapy

d. Patients treated with steroids

24 / 60

All are Antigen-Presenting Cells (APCs) but except:

a. B cells

b. Dendritic cells

c. NK cells

d. Macrophages

25 / 60

The class I MHC molecule appeared to bind with receptor of:

a. Plasma cell

b. Suppressor T cell

c. Cytotoxic T cell

d. Helper T cell

26 / 60

Serum which contains antibodies is called:

a. Antibodies

b. Antigens

c. Antiserum

d. Globulin

27 / 60

Récepteur de lymphocyte B គឺ:

a. អង្កត់ Fc របស់ IgM

b. récepteur de វីរុស Epstein-Barr

c. Immunoglobuline M membranaire

d. récepteur de C3a

28 / 60

CD8 ជា marqueur របស់

a. lymphocyte T cytotoxique

b. lymphocyte B

c. Cellule NK

d. lymphocyte T auxilliaire

29 / 60

Cytokine ចំបង ដែលផលិតដោយ lymphocyte Th2 គឺ:

a. Interleukine-4

b. Interferon gamma

c. Interleukine-12

d. Interleukine-10

30 / 60

Immunoglobuline នៅលើផ្ទៃរបស់ lymphocyte B មានតួនាទី:

a. ក្នុងការធ្វើ dégranulation របស់ កោសិកា basophile

b. ក្នុងការស្គាល់ អង់ទីហ្សែន spécifique

c. ក្នុងការភ្ញោច កោសិកា macrophage

d. ក្នុងការបង្ហាញ អង់ទីហ្សែន ដល់ កោសិកា lymphocyte T

31 / 60

មុខងារ effecteur របស់អង្គបដិបក្ខ ក្នុងការបំផ្លាញកោសិកា cible ប្រព្រិត្តឡើងតាមរយៈ

a. récepteur នៃ compléments

b. កោសិកា phagocyte

c. ផ្នែក Fc របស់ អង្គបដិបក្ខ

d. ផ្នែក F(ab)2 របស់អង្គបដិបក្ខ

32 / 60

កោសិកា ដែលមានម៉ូលេគុល CMH classe I និងមានភ្ជាប់ peptide គឺជា cible របស់

a. lymphocyte Th2

b. lymphocyte T cytotoxique

c. lymphocyte Th1

d. cellule dendritique folliculaire

33 / 60

នៅក្នុងការឆ្លើយតបរបស់ប្រព័ន្ធភាពសុំាទៅនឹងអង់ទីហ្សែន មួយៈ

a. lymphocyte B ភ្ញោច cellule dendritique

b. lymphocyte T រារាំងនិងបន្ថយការផលិតអង្គបដិបក្ខ

c. cellule dendritique mature ភ្ញោច lymphocyte T via la présentation de l’Ag

d. lymphocyte T ភ្ញោចការផលិត អង្គបដិបក្ខ

34 / 60

ភាពខុសគ្នារវាង réponse humoral primaire និង secondaire មានទំនាក់ទំនង នឹង :

a. ភាពខុសគ្នានៃ affinité របស់ IgG សំរាប់អង់ទីហ្សែនមួយ

b. បរិមាណនៃ អង់ទីហ្សែន

c. classe នៃ Immunoglobuline (Ig) នៅកលផ្ទៃរបស់ lymphocyte B/B cell

d. អង្កត់ (fragment) variable របស់ Ig

35 / 60

កោសិកា Natural killer

a. មាន ម៉ូលេគុល CD3 នៅលើផ្ទៃភ្នាសខាងក្រៅ

b. មិនមានម៉ូលេគុល CD3 នៅលើផ្ទៃភ្នាសខាងក្រៅ

c. មិនមានម៉ូលេគុល CD56 នៅលើផ្ទៃភ្នាសខាងក្រៅ

d. មិនធ្វើសកម្មភាព cytolytique

36 / 60

TLR-4 (Toll Like Receptor-4) ជា pattern recognition receptor) ដែលស្គាល់ៈ

a. ARN double brin

b. motif CpG

c. Peptidoglycan

d. lipopolysaccharide

37 / 60

Which transplant method would prevent the rejection of tissue after and organ transplant?

a. Using an organ donated by a close relative because the proteins will always be identical to those of the patient

b. Using organs cloned from the cells of the patient

c. Using organs produced by genetic engineering to get rid of all proteins in the donated organs

d. Using organs only from pigs or monkeys

38 / 60

Which of the following is an agent (e.g. aluminum salts, oil-based, virosomes) often used to modify or augment the effects of a vaccine by stimulating the immune system to respond to the vaccine more vigorously, and thus providing increased immunity to a particular disease?

a. Adjuvant

b. Immunogen

c. Antigen

d. Stimulant

39 / 60

Hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh blood group incompatibility requires maternal antibody to enter the fetal bloodstream. Therefore, the mediator of this disease is

a. IgA antibody.

b. IgG antibody.

c. IgE antibody.

d. IgM antibody.

40 / 60

Where does a mature T cell encounter antigen for the first time?

a. On an APC in a primary lymphoid organ

b. On an APC in a secondary lymphoid organ

c. Freely in a secondary lymphoid organ

d. Freely in the blood stream

41 / 60

Which immunoglobulins help initiate the classic complement pathway ?

a. IgM only

b. IgA and IgD

c. IgG only

d. IgG and IgM

42 / 60

CD4+ cells recognize antigen displayed on MHC ____ molecules and CD8+ cells recognize antigen displayed on MHC ____ molecules. ____ has TH1 and TH2 cell populations.

a. Class II; Class I; CD8+

b. Class II; Class I; CD4+

c. Class I; Class II; CD4+

d. Class I; Class II; CD8+

43 / 60

A vaccine used against an infectious disease may contain:

a. Specialized blood cells

b. Weakened pathogens

c. Toxic enzymes

d. A variety of antibiotics

44 / 60

What types foes of cell is class MHC-I found on ?

a. B cells

b. Dendritic cells

c. All Nucleated cells

d. Macrophage

45 / 60

Which of the following is NOT true when comparing innate to adaptive immunity?

a. Innate has immunologic memory and adaptive does not

b. Innate does not show response improvements over time and adaptive does

c. Innate response is non-specific and adaptive is very specific

d. Innate responds quickly and Adaptive responds slowly

46 / 60

Which isotype of immunoglobulin is involved in a type I hypersensitivity?

a. IgE

b. IgG

c. IgM

d. IgA

47 / 60

The principle difference between type II and type III hypersensitivity reactions is the:

a. Whether the antigen is cellular or soluble

b. Involvement of helper T cells and macrophages

c. Complement-mediated lysis of host cells

d. Isotype of antibody involved

48 / 60

The role of the macrophage during an antibody response is to

a. Lyse virus-infected target cells.

b. Make antibody.

c. Process antigen and present it.

d. Activate cytotoxic T cells.

49 / 60

The antibody-binding site is formed primarily by

a. The variable regions of H chains.

b. The constant regions of H and L chains.

c. The hypervariable regions of H chains.

d. The hypervariable regions of H and L chains.

50 / 60

The genes encoding which of the following can undergo hypermutation to create receptors that are an even better fit for foreign antigens ?

a. BCRs

b. BCRs and TCRs

c. MHC

d. TCRs

51 / 60

Subunit vaccines contains components from pathogens, which are inactivated and referred to as ____. These vaccines are generally of low immunogenicity and may need ____ to work effectively.

a. Cytokines; IgE

b. Capsules; Homeostasis

c. Toxoids; Adjuvants

d. LPS; Live vaccination

52 / 60

Adaptive immune system response typically takes how long

a. Days

b. Seconds

c. Hours

d. Minutes

53 / 60

The membrane attack complex (MAC) uses C3 to activate the final part of the complement pathway. It is important in defense against Neisseria. Which of the following components is/are inserted into the plasma membrane of the target cel l, allowing for free passage of water/solute and thus killing the cell?

a. C7

b. C7-C9

c. C8

d. C5 & C6

54 / 60

The ____ T cell-APC interaction is MHC ____-restricted, and the ____ T cell-target cell interaction is MHC ____-restricted.

a. CD8+; Class II; CD4+; Class I

b. CD8+; Class I; CD4+; Class II

c. CD4+; Class II; CD8+; Class I

d. CD4+; Class I; CD8+; Class II

55 / 60

What are peripheral cells called if they have never come in contact with antigen?

a. Naïve cell

b. Immature cell

c. Plasma cell

d. Mature cell

56 / 60

Which of the following is a function of the innate immune system and NOT the adaptive immune system ?

a. Frequently malfunctions and may cause autoimmunity.

b. Recognizes conformational structures or short peptides bound to MHC

c. Uses germline genes to produce collections.

d. Has immunological memory

57 / 60

Precipitation reactions involve combination of soluble antibody with:

a. Soluble antigen

b. Red blood cells

c. Radioactive antigen

d. Cellular antigens

58 / 60

On a serial dilution with the following tube set u p, 1:2, 1:4, 2:8, 1:16, 1:32, and 1:64 , there is no visible agglutination in the 1:64. What is the titer of the antibody?

a. Cannot determine

b. 16

c. 64

d. 32

59 / 60

T cell surface receptors for antigen partly recognize :

a. IL-2

b. Antibody

c. MHC

d. Cytokines

60 / 60

A serological reaction is set up in which the antigen is coated to larger carrier (particle), the antibody is soluble , and they bind and form an insoluble complex that is detected macroscopically. What type of assay is described?

a. Agglutination

b. ELISA

c. Precipitation

d. Immunofluorescent

Your score is

The average score is 87%

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Immunologie Générale Et Appliquée Test

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