Immunologie Générale Et Appliquée Test

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1 / 60

The Adverse events following immunization (AEFI) are divided into:

a. 4 categories

b. 5 categories

c. 3 categories

d. 6 categories

2 / 60

Injection of immunoglobulin is:

a. Artificial type of active immunity

b. Artificial type of passive immunity

c. Natural type of active immunity

d. Natural type of passive immunity

3 / 60

The process of weakening a pathogen is called:

a. Immunization

b. Vaccination

c. Attenuation

d. Virulence reduction

4 / 60

What is the immune cell in adaptive immunity?

a. Macrophage

b. Plasma cell

c. Antigen presenting cells

d. Mast Cell

5 / 60

A potential disadvantage of immunological protection using passive transfer of horse globulins is:

a. Lack of antibody-mediated immune response

b. Serum sickness

c. Irreversible protection

d. Type IV hypersensitivity reactions

6 / 60

Which of the following is the site of T cell maturation?

a. Bone marrow

b. Spleen

c. Appendix

d. Thymus

7 / 60

Serum which contains antibodies is called:

a. Antiserum

b. Antigens

c. Antibodies

d. Globulin

8 / 60

In the application Antigen- Antibody reaction, which one is not correct?

a. Immunofluorescence is to locate and identify antigen in tissues and clinical materials

b. Precipitation test is used to detect antigen or antibodies

c. Agglutination reaction is used to detect antigen or antibodies

d. Radioimmunoassay is measuring of concentration of antigen and antibody

9 / 60

Successful immunization can be impaired by:

a. Cytokines

b. Maternal antibody

c. Cloning the vaccine

d. Adjuvants

10 / 60

Which of the following statement is true regarding vaccination:

a. Vaccination is a method of active immunization

b. Vaccination is a method of passive immunization

c. Vaccination is a method of artificial passive immunization

d. Vaccination is a method of natural passive

11 / 60

Which of the following antibodies have a positive effect on babies through breast feeding?

a. Ig A

b. Ig D

c. Ig G

d. Ig M

12 / 60

All are immune cells in innate immune system but except:

a. Macrophages

b. NK cells

c. Dendritic cells

d. Lymphocytes

13 / 60

In the immune response to a hapten–protein conjugate, in order to get anti-hapten antibodies, it is essential that:

a. The protein be recognized by B cells

b. The hapten be recognized by suppressor T cells

c. The protein be recognized by helper T cells

d. The hapten be recognized by helper T cells

14 / 60

The class I MHC molecule appeared to bind with receptor of:

a. Helper T cell

b. Suppressor T cell

c. Cytotoxic T cell

d. Plasma cell

15 / 60

To drive antigen for proliferating and differentiating into armed effector T cells, The activated T cells produce :

a. Interleukin 2

b. Tumor necrosing factor

c. Interferon alpha

d. Interleukin 4

16 / 60

The antigen-antibody interactions occur in:

a. Three stages

b. Fourth stages

c. Fifth stages

d. Two stages

17 / 60

The immunoglobulins transport across placenta mostly:

a. Ig G4

b. Ig G1

c. Ig G2

d. Ig G3

18 / 60

Which of the following immune cells/ molecules are most effective at destroying intracellular pathogens?

a. Complement

b. Helper T cells

c. B cells

d. Cytotoxic T cells

19 / 60

A primary immune response in an adult human requires approximately how much time to produce detectable antibody levels in the blood?

a. 12 hours

b. 3 days

c. 1 week

d. 3 weeks

20 / 60

Which of the following antibody types forms a pentamer?

a. Ig M

b. Ig G

c. Ig D

d. Ig A

21 / 60

An epitope is:

a. antigen determinant site

b. a B-cell

c. a hapten

d. an antibody

22 / 60

What is the minimum percentage of children which needs to be vaccinated successfully in order to achieve herd immunity to diphtheria:

a. 60%

b. 40%

c. 50%

d. 80%

23 / 60

The following statements are related to hepatitis B and pregnancy which statement is incorrect?

a. The infants then receive two additional doses of HBV vaccine at ages 1-2 M & 6-8 M

b. Three possible routes for transmission of HBV: Transplacental, Natal and Horizontal

c. Both active and passive immunizations are used for HBsAg-positive mothers

d. HBV vaccine and HBIG are given at same time to 2 sites in 12-24 h of delivery

24 / 60

What is the mode of administration for BCG vaccine?

a. Subcutaneous route (SC)

b. Intramuscular (IM)

c. Oral route

d. Intradermal route (ID)

25 / 60

Which of the following is not the function of antibody?

a. Opsonization

b. Neutralization

c. Complement activation

d. Lysis of pathogen

26 / 60

HBV vaccine and HBIG are given at same time at two different injection sites within:

a. 12-24 h of delivery

b. 48-72 h of delivery

c. 1 week of delivery

d. 24-48 h of delivery

27 / 60

Interleukine 2 (IL-2) សំយោគដោយៈ

a. Éosinophile

b. lymphocyte B

c. lymphocyte T

d. macrophage

28 / 60

ការឆ្លើយតបរបស់ប្រព័ន្ធភាពសុំា adaptative régulé par:

a. Lymphocyte T régulateur និង concentration de l’antigène.

b. Lymphocyte T régulateur

c. concentration de l’antigène

d. neutrophile

29 / 60

ម៉ូលេគុលដែលមានវត្តមាននៅលើផ្ទៃ ភ្នាស របស់ lymphocyte T គឺ:

a. ជួនកាលមានម៉ូលេគុល CD86

b. ម៉ូលេគុល CD3 រួមជាមួយ récepteur de reconnaissance de l’Ag

c. Récepteurs របស់ វីរុស EBV

d. Récepteurs សំរាប់គ្រាប់ឈាមក្រហមរបស់សត្វ ចៀម

30 / 60

réaction immunitaire primaire មានភាពខុសគ្នា នឹង ប្រតិកម្ម secondaire ដោយ :

a. កដំណាក់កាល latence មានរយៈពេលខ្លី

b. មាន ការផលិត យ៉ាងខ្លាំង នូវបរិមាណ អង្គបដិបក្ខ ប្រភេទ IgM

c. មាន ការផលិត យ៉ាងខ្លាំង នូវបរិមាណ អង្គបដិបក្ខ ប្រភេទ IgG

d. អង្គបដិបក្ខ មាន សកម្មភាព ក្នុងរយៈពេលវែង

31 / 60

CD8 ជា marqueur របស់

a. Cellule NK

b. lymphocyte T cytotoxique

c. lymphocyte B

d. lymphocyte T auxilliaire

32 / 60

អង្គបដិបក្ខ spécifique អាច តាមដានឃើញមានវត្តមាន ក្នុង សេរ៉ូម បន្ទាប់ ពី មាន infection :

a. ក្រោយ ៣ ទៅ ៥ សប្ដាហ៍

b. ក្រោយ ៥ ទៅ ៧ ថ្ងៃ

c. ក្រោយ ១ ម៉ោង

d. កក្រោយ ១០ នាទី

33 / 60

Immunoglobuline នៅលើផ្ទៃរបស់ lymphocyte B មានតួនាទី:

a. ក្នុងការធ្វើ dégranulation របស់ កោសិកា basophile

b. ក្នុងការស្គាល់ អង់ទីហ្សែន spécifique

c. ក្នុងការបង្ហាញ អង់ទីហ្សែន ដល់ កោសិកា lymphocyte T

d. ក្នុងការភ្ញោច កោសិកា macrophage

34 / 60

lymphocyte Th2 ផលិត cytokine

a. IL-4

b. TGF beta

c. Interferon gamma

d. IL-1

35 / 60

Precipitation reactions involve combination of soluble antibody with:

a. Red blood cells

b. Cellular antigens

c. Soluble antigen

d. Radioactive antigen

36 / 60

Which transplant method would prevent the rejection of tissue after and organ transplant?

a. Using organs cloned from the cells of the patient

b. Using an organ donated by a close relative because the proteins will always be identical to those of the patient

c. Using organs only from pigs or monkeys

d. Using organs produced by genetic engineering to get rid of all proteins in the donated organs

37 / 60

Which of the following components of the innate immune system involves recognition molecules such as mannan-binding lectin (MBL ) for bacteria with mannose on the surface ?

a. Natural Killer (NK) cells

b. Acute phase proteins

c. Interferons

d. Complement system

38 / 60

Which of the following is NOT true regarding the complement system?

a. They can bind to bacteria, making holes in their membrane

b. They attract phagocytes to both foreign material and self-cells

c. Binding of MBLs to a bacterial capsule triggers the complement cascade

d. They are serum proteins that form protein cascades, each activated component activating the next to generate a physiologic response

39 / 60

Which of the following is NOT tru e of CD4 and CD8 cell markers?

a. These serve to distinguish different type of T-cells.

b. There are not found associated with immunoglobulin.

c. There are both surface glycoproteins expressed on T-cells.

d. Both of the maker present on all T-cells.

40 / 60

Which of the following components of the innate immune system involves the release of histamine ?

a. Eosinophil

b. Neutrophil

c. Tissue mast cell

d. Natural killer cell

41 / 60

Humoral immunity is mediated by antibodies from ____ and is involved in the elimination of ____ pathogens. Cell mediated immunity is mediated by ____ and is involved in the elimination of ____ pathogens.

a. T lymphocytes; Intracellular; B lymphocytes; Extracellular

b. T lymphocytes; Extracellular; B lymphocytes; Intracellular

c. B lymphocytes; Extracellular; T lymphocytes; Intracellular

d. B lymphocytes; Intracellular; T lymphocytes; Extracellular

42 / 60

Which statement best describes what will most likely happen when an individual receives a vaccination containing a weakened pathogen ?

a. The ability to fight disease will increase due to antibodies received from the pathogen.

b. The ability to fight disease caused by the pathogen will increase due to antibody production.

c. The ability to produce antibodies will decrease after the vaccination.

d. The ability to resist most types of diseases will increase.

43 / 60

Which of the following is NOT true about MHC molecules but true about B and T cells ?

a. Every cell in each individual expresses the same set of molecules

b. Every cell expresses a different molecule created from multiple gene segments that undergo somatic rearrangement

c. The genes that encode molecules are the most variable genes we know of in the human genome (polygenic)

d. They are extensively polymorphic (existence of multiple alleles or forms of the same gene)

44 / 60

Activation of a T cell requires ____. Following activation, the T cell proliferates and differentiates into ____, then moves into peripheral tissues and other organs.

a. Recognition of antigen displayed on MHC molecules and a costimulatory signal; Naïve cells

b. Recognition of antigen displayed on MHC molecules and a costimulatory signal; Effector cells

c. Recognition of antigen displayed on MHC molecules; Naïve cells

d. Recognition of antigen displayed on MHC molecules; Effector cells

45 / 60

Which of the following can activate the alternative complement pathway ?

a. IgG

b. IgD

c. C3b

d. Ciq

46 / 60

Which of the following uses protein antigens separated by molecular weight using sodium dodecyl sulfate polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis ( SDS-PAGE) ?

a. FACS (fluorescence-activated cell sorting)

b. Western blotting (immunoblotting)

c. ELISA (Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay)

d. Fluorescent antibody (fluorochromes)

47 / 60

Gamma () globulin serum fraction contains predominantly which immunoglobulin?

a. IgG

b. IgE

c. IgM

d. IgD

e. IgA

48 / 60

The virus that causes bird flu can attach to the cells of the lower part of the respiratory system in humans, but not to the cells of the upper part of the respiratory system. The most likely reason for this is that these two groups of cells have different:

a. DNA code in their nuclei

b. Enzymes in their mitochondria

c. Amounts of water in their cytoplasm

d. Receptor molecules on their membranes

49 / 60

All of the following are functions of IgG EXCEPT

a. Be secreted into mucus

b. Facilitate ADCC

c. Cross the placenta

d. Opsonize bacteria.

50 / 60

Acute phase reactants have been determined to be elevated in a patient. What does this result on it own indicate about the patient?

a. There is a parasitic infection and not a viral infection

b. Inflammation of unknown cause in present.

c. Patient has a leukemia but not a lymphoma

d. This is a normal result.

51 / 60

Regarding mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT), which of the following is secreted by B cells across the epithelium?

a. IgA

b. IgE

c. IgM

d. IgG

52 / 60

A serological reaction is set up in which the antigen is coated to larger carrier (particle), the antibody is soluble , and they bind and form an insoluble complex that is detected macroscopically. What type of assay is described?

a. Immunofluorescent

b. Precipitation

c. ELISA

d. Agglutination

53 / 60

Which of the following i s the cellular receptor for HIV attachments to T cell s?

a. CD8

b. CD4

c. CD3

d. CD2

54 / 60

Immunological memory is a feature exhibited by:

a. Humoral immunity

b. Cell-mediated immunity

c. Adaptive immunity

d. Innate immunity

55 / 60

The antibody-binding site is formed primarily by

a. The constant regions of H and L chains.

b. The hypervariable regions of H and L chains.

c. The hypervariable regions of H chains.

d. The variable regions of H chains.

56 / 60

Which of the following is a messenge r that mediates the connection between the innate and adaptive immune system ?

a. Cytokines

b. T and B lymphocytes

c. Interferons

d. Complement components

57 / 60

How many genes does MHC-II have ?

a. 4 (HLA-DQ alpha/beta, HLA-DR alpha/beta)

b. 2 (HLA-DQ alpha/beta)

c. 2 (HLA-DP alpha/beta)

d. 6 (HLA-DP alpha/beta, HIA-DQ alpha/beta, HLA-DR alpha/beta)

58 / 60

Protestive antibodies against infectious agents are often :

a. Autoantibodies

b. Natural killer

c. Toxoids

d. Neutralizing

59 / 60

Vaccination help prepare the body to fight invasions of a specific pathogen by:

a. Inhibiting white blood cell production

b. Stimulating antibody production

c. Inhibiting antigen production

d. Stimulating red blood cell production

60 / 60

Which of the following components of the adaptive immune system causes lysis of virally infected cells and the release of cytokines?

a. Activated B cell (Plasma cell)

b. CD4+ activated T cell

c. CD8+ cytotoxic and CD4+ activated T cell

d. CD8+ cytotoxic T cell

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The average score is 87%

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Immunologie Générale Et Appliquée Test

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