Immunologie Générale Et Appliquée Test 0% 0 votes, 0 avg 312 You will have 60 minutes to complete all the questions. After the timer reaches 60 minutes, the exam will end and be saved automatically. Good luck! *Fingers crossed* The timer has been reached. The exam has now been terminated and saved. Immunologie Générale Et Appliquée Test 1 / 60 Cytokine ដែលមានតួនាទីសំរាប់ la survie de lymphocytes T: a. IL-10 b. IL-12 c. IL-18 d. IL-2 2 / 60 lymphocyte Th2 ផលិត cytokine a. IL-4 b. IL-1 c. TGF beta d. Interferon gamma 3 / 60 TLR-4 (Toll Like Receptor-4) ជា pattern recognition receptor) ដែលស្គាល់ៈ a. motif CpG b. ARN double brin c. lipopolysaccharide d. Peptidoglycan 4 / 60 Interleukine 2 (IL-2) សំយោគដោយៈ a. lymphocyte B b. macrophage c. lymphocyte T d. Éosinophile 5 / 60 សារធាតុមួយណាដែលបញ្ចេញដោយ lymphocyte T activé a. histamine b. protéine C réactif c. protéines de compléments d. Interferon gamma 6 / 60 Cytokine ចំបង ដែលផលិតដោយ lymphocyte Th2 គឺ: a. Interferon gamma b. Interleukine-12 c. Interleukine-10 d. Interleukine-4 7 / 60 Toxines ត្រូវបាន neutralisé ដោយ a. compléments b. toxoïds c. anticorps d. endonucléase 8 / 60 កោសិកា Natural killer a. មិនមានម៉ូលេគុល CD56 នៅលើផ្ទៃភ្នាសខាងក្រៅ b. មាន ម៉ូលេគុល CD3 នៅលើផ្ទៃភ្នាសខាងក្រៅ c. មិនមានម៉ូលេគុល CD3 នៅលើផ្ទៃភ្នាសខាងក្រៅ d. មិនធ្វើសកម្មភាព cytolytique 9 / 60 នៅក្នុងការឆ្លើយតបរបស់ប្រព័ន្ធភាពសុំាទៅនឹងអង់ទីហ្សែន មួយៈ a. cellule dendritique mature ភ្ញោច lymphocyte T via la présentation de l’Ag b. lymphocyte T រារាំងនិងបន្ថយការផលិតអង្គបដិបក្ខ c. lymphocyte B ភ្ញោច cellule dendritique d. lymphocyte T ភ្ញោចការផលិត អង្គបដិបក្ខ 10 / 60 Which of the following antibodies have a positive effect on babies through breast feeding? a. Ig M b. Ig G c. Ig A d. Ig D 11 / 60 In the immune response to a hapten–protein conjugate, in order to get anti-hapten antibodies, it is essential that: a. The hapten be recognized by helper T cells b. The protein be recognized by B cells c. The protein be recognized by helper T cells d. The hapten be recognized by suppressor T cells 12 / 60 The following statements are related to hepatitis B and pregnancy which statement is incorrect? a. The infants then receive two additional doses of HBV vaccine at ages 1-2 M & 6-8 M b. Three possible routes for transmission of HBV: Transplacental, Natal and Horizontal c. Both active and passive immunizations are used for HBsAg-positive mothers d. HBV vaccine and HBIG are given at same time to 2 sites in 12-24 h of delivery 13 / 60 HBV vaccine and HBIG are given at same time at two different injection sites within: a. 48-72 h of delivery b. 12-24 h of delivery c. 1 week of delivery d. 24-48 h of delivery 14 / 60 Serum which contains antibodies is called: a. Antiserum b. Antigens c. Antibodies d. Globulin 15 / 60 The effectiveness is: a. The direct protection to a vaccinated individual as estimated from clinical trial b. An estimate of the direct protection in a field study post licensure c. An indirect effect of vaccination due to reduced disease transmission d. The population level effect of a vaccination programme 16 / 60 Which of the following antibodies would most likely be found in body secretions such as tears, milk, saliva and mucus? a. Ig D b. Ig M c. Ig A d. Ig G 17 / 60 The bonds involved in antigen-antibody interactions are a. Strong covalent bonds b. Weak hydrogen bonds and Vanderwalls forces c. Strong di-sulphide bonds d. Weak and Strong bonds 18 / 60 An epitope is: a. an antibody b. a hapten c. a B-cell d. antigen determinant site 19 / 60 Successful immunization can be impaired by: a. Cytokines b. Adjuvants c. Cloning the vaccine d. Maternal antibody 20 / 60 The inability of very young children to respond to the measles vaccine due to the persistence of maternal antibody is similar in principle to and exploited in which of the following? a. Neonatal inability to respond to T-independent antigens b. Tolerance to self antigens c. Low dose tolerance regimens d. Passive immunization as a means of preventing active sensitization (e.g., Rhogam injections) 21 / 60 In an immune response the type of cell which gets activated earliest is: a. Cytotoxic T cells b. Killer T cells c. Plasma cells d. Helper T cells 22 / 60 The circulation of a two month old breast-fed baby will contain maternal: a. IgD b. IgG c. IgM d. IgA 23 / 60 Which of the following immune cells/ molecules are most effective at destroying intracellular pathogens? a. Cytotoxic T cells b. B cells c. Complement d. Helper T cells 24 / 60 Adjuvant used in HPV vaccine is: a. Liposome b. Aluminium phosphate (AlPO4) c. Aluminium hydroxyphosphate sulphate d. Monophosphoryl lipide A (MPL) 25 / 60 Which of the following immune cells/molecules are most effective at destroying intracellular pathogens? a. B cells b. T helper cells c. Complement d. T cytolytic cells 26 / 60 An immunoglobulin is a: a. Protein b. Glycolipid c. Polysaccharide d. Glycoprotein 27 / 60 What is the mode of administration for PCV-13 vaccine? a. Oral route b. Intradermal route (ID) c. Intramuscular (IM) d. Subcutaneous route (SC) 28 / 60 Newborns get their antibodies from mother’s milk. This is an example of? a. Naturally acquired active immunity b. Naturally acquired passive immunity c. Artificially acquired passive immunity d. Artificially acquired active immunity 29 / 60 The impact is: a. The direct protection to a vaccinated individual as estimated from clinical trial b. An estimate of the direct protection in a field study post licensure c. The population level effect of a vaccination programme d. An indirect effect of vaccination due to reduced disease transmission 30 / 60 All are the measure for post rabies exposure prophylaxis, but except one? a. Wound treatment b. Suture the wound c. Rabies immunoglobulin d. Vaccine administration 31 / 60 Hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh blood group incompatibility requires maternal antibody to enter the fetal bloodstream. Therefore, the mediator of this disease is: a. Ig M antibody b. Ig G antibody c. Ig A antibody d. Ig E antibody 32 / 60 Injection of immunoglobulin is: a. Natural type of passive immunity b. Artificial type of active immunity c. Artificial type of passive immunity d. Natural type of active immunity 33 / 60 All are therapeutic applications of polyclonal antibodies but except one? a. Laboratory tests b. Hematologic disorders c. Neurologic disorders d. Skin diseases 34 / 60 The type of T-cells that destroy host cells bearing foreign antigen: a. CD4 b. CD8 c. Suppressor T-cells d. B-cells 35 / 60 The classical pathway of complement activation is: a. Ig G pathway b. Toxins pathway c. Lectin pathway d. Ig E pathway 36 / 60 Often patients are immune to diseases like chicken pox once infecte. This immunity is an example of? a. Artificially acquired passive immunity b. Artificially acquired active immunity c. Naturally acquired passive immunity d. Naturally acquired active immunity 37 / 60 During the maturation of a B lymphocyte, the first immunoglobulin heavy chain synthesized is: a. Mu chain b. Gamma chain c. Epsilon chain d. Alpha chain 38 / 60 Which of the following is not an ideal property of a vaccine? a. Reusability b. Stability c. Safety d. Affordability 39 / 60 The complement system involved in the inflammation are: a. C3a, C4a and C5a b. C3 and C4 c. C3a and C5a d. C3b and C5b 40 / 60 All are immune cells in innate immune system but except: a. Dendritic cells b. NK cells c. Macrophages d. Lymphocytes 41 / 60 An epitope: a. Is usually composed of a linear sequence of amino acids b. Requires both antigen-binding arms of the antibody molecule for its recognition c. Is the area on an antigen which contacts antibody d. Is the area on an antibody which contacts antigen 42 / 60 A patient presents with an increased number of lymphocytes in his peripheral blood. Which of the following is an appropriate technique to find out which type of lymphocytes these are? a. Western blotting b. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) c. Flow cytometric analysis d. Radioimmunoassay (RIA) 43 / 60 The classical pathway of complement activation is: a. Toxins pathway b. Ig M pathway c. Ig A pathway d. Lectin pathway 44 / 60 The immune cells that is linked between innate and adaptive immunity are: a. T-cells b. Macrophages c. B-cells d. NK T-cells 45 / 60 The immune cells that is linked between innate and adaptive immunity are: a. NK T-cells b. T helper cells c. Macrophages d. T cytotoxic cells 46 / 60 The site of T-cell maturation is the? a. Splenic red pulp b. Peyer's patch c. Thymic cortex d. Lymph node germinal center 47 / 60 What kind of cell is most numerous in the periarterial lymphatic sheath (PALS) of the spleen? a. Macrophages b. B-lymphocytes c. T-lymphocytes d. Plasma cells 48 / 60 The secretion of antibodies by lymphocyte B cells provides? a. Cell-mediated immunity b. Permanent immunity c. Passive immunity d. Humoral immunity 49 / 60 Most naïve T cell activation occurs where and in response to what? a. In the infected tissues in response to antigen presentation by macrophages b. In the skin in response to cytokines c. In secondary lymphoid organs in response to antigen presentation by dendritic cells d. In the thymus in response to antigen presentation by thymic medullary epithelial cells 50 / 60 Which of the following can be accurately called a cytokine? a. A lipid secreted by a Natural Killer cell that activates a B cell b. A nuclear protein that regulates lymphocyte gene expression c. A protein secreted by a T lymphocyte that activates a macrophage d. An antibody secreted by a B cell 51 / 60 Which of the following cell types is NOT known to act as an antigen-presenting cell for CD4+ T cells? a. Dendritic cells b. NK cells c. B lymphocytes d. Macrophages 52 / 60 Which of the following statements regarding the functional properties of cytokines is false? a. They assist in the regulation and development of immune effector cells. b. They often display antigen specificity. c. They often exhibit functional redundancy. d. They exhibit synergistic or antagonistic properties. 53 / 60 A standard treatment of animal bite victims, when there is a possibility that the animal was infected with the rabies virus, is administration of human immunoglobulin preparations containing anti–rabies virus antibodies. Which type of immunity would be stablished by this treatment? a. Active cell-mediated immunity b. Passive humoral immunity c. Active humoral immunity d. Innate immunity 54 / 60 Precursors of macrophages are called? a. Plasma cells b. killer cells c. Monocytes d. T cells 55 / 60 Tissue macrophages are derived from which type of circulating blood cell? a. Monocyte b. Small lymphocyte c. Basophil d. Polymorphonuclear leukocyte 56 / 60 The germinal center is an important site of? a. T-cell maturation. b. Initial germ line V gene rearrangement. c. Hematopoiesis d. B-cell maturation. 57 / 60 Antigen-presenting cells? a. Express the T-cell receptor (TCR) on the cell surface. b. Display antigens using class II MHC. c. Recognize antigens bound to the major histocompatibility complex (MHC). d. Are required for B-cell activation. 58 / 60 Cytokines attract which of the following to the affected tissue? a. All of the above b. Basophils c. Macrophages d. Lymphocytes 59 / 60 Which subsets of T cells recognize antigens presented by class II MHC molecules? a. Memory T cells b. CD8+ cytotoxic T cells c. CD4+ helper T cells d. Natural killer T cells 60 / 60 The spleen is largely involved with the response to antigens which are in the? a. Gut b. Tissues c. Lungs d. Blood Your score isThe average score is 83% Facebook 0% Restart quiz Any comments? Send feedback