Immunologie Générale Et Appliquée Test

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1 / 60

Which complement component is found in both the classical a nd a lte r n a tive pa thw a ys?

a. C2

b. C1

c. C3

d. Factor B

2 / 60

Which of the following is used extensively to detect antigens in cells or tissue sections , as well as to screen for auto-antibodies to cell or tissue antigens?

a. ELISA (Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay)

b. FACS (fluorescence-activated cell sorting)

c. Western blotting (immunoblotting)

d. Fluorescent antibody (fluorochromes)

3 / 60

Activation of a T cell requires ____. Following activation, the T cell proliferates and differentiates into ____, then moves into peripheral tissues and other organs.

a. Recognition of antigen displayed on MHC molecules; Naïve cells

b. Recognition of antigen displayed on MHC molecules; Effector cells

c. Recognition of antigen displayed on MHC molecules and a costimulatory signal; Effector cells

d. Recognition of antigen displayed on MHC molecules and a costimulatory signal; Naïve cells

4 / 60

In somatic recombination, the ____ rearranges first. The ____ region of the antibody molecule is generated via somatic recombination as it binds to the antigen and contains both a constan t region and a variable region .

a. Light chain; Fab

b. Light chain; Fc

c. Heavy chain; Fc

d. Heavy chain; Fab

5 / 60

The expression of cell surface markers is determined in t he flow cytometer by which of the following?

a. Radioactivity

b. Fluorescence

c. Optical density

d. Chemiluminescence

6 / 60

The zone at which antibody and antigen are at optimal concentration so that they form a large insoluble lattice together is called the:

a. Postzone

b. Equivalence zone

c. Prezone

d. Prozone

7 / 60

Which of the following components of the adaptive immune system secretes immunoglobulin (Ig) ?

a. CD4+ activated T cell

b. CD8+ cytotoxic T cell (CTL)

c. Activated B cell (plasma cell)

d. CD4+ T cell and CD8+ T cell

8 / 60

Which of the following best describes penicillin, a hapten ?

a. Small in size and needs to be coupled to induce an immune response

b. Large in size and needs to be coupled to induce an immune response

c. Large in size and can induce an immune response alone

d. Small in size and can induce an immune response alone

9 / 60

Anaphylatoxins are chemotaxins that stimulate phagocytosis and degranulation. Which complement components is/are mainly involved ?

a. C2 & C4

b. C5

c. C3 & C5

d. C3

10 / 60

A serological test that uses red blood cells coated with exogenous antigens such as bacterial polysaccharides as a method to detect patient antibodies against that exogenous antigen is called:

a. Neutralization

b. Complement fixation

c. Hemagglutination

d. Latex agglutination

11 / 60

Subunit vaccines contains components from pathogens, which are inactivated and referred to as ____. These vaccines are generally of low immunogenicity and may need ____ to work effectively.

a. Toxoids; Adjuvants

b. Capsules; Homeostasis

c. Cytokines; IgE

d. LPS; Live vaccination

12 / 60

Antigen presenting cells (APCs) include macrophages and dendritic cells , which are found in lymphoid tissues and the ____. These are critical in the uptake and presentation of antigen to T cells.

a. Brain

b. Skin

c. Kidney

d. Liver

13 / 60

Which of the following best explains the reaction that takes in the latex agglutination slide test for CRP?

a. CRP is acting as an antibody

b. Latex particles are coated with anti-CRP.

c. Latex particles are nonspecifically bound.

d. Latex particles are coated with CRP.

14 / 60

Which of the following is NOT true when comparing p rimary immune response to subsequent (secondary) immune response?

a. Secondary response takes 1-3 days

b. Primary response has a high affinity for antigen

c. Primary response takes 5-10 days

d. Primary response has IgM as the major antibody class

15 / 60

Which of the following is used to characterize antigens in complex mixtures biochemically ?

a. ELISA (Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay)

b. Western blotting (immunoblotting)

c. FACS (fluorescence-activated cell sorting)

d. Fluorescent antibody (fluorochromes)

16 / 60

Gamma () globulin serum fraction contains predominantly which immunoglobulin?

a. IgA

b. IgE

c. IgM

d. IgG

e. IgD

17 / 60

The virus that causes bird flu can attach to the cells of the lower part of the respiratory system in humans, but not to the cells of the upper part of the respiratory system. The most likely reason for this is that these two groups of cells have different:

a. Enzymes in their mitochondria

b. Receptor molecules on their membranes

c. DNA code in their nuclei

d. Amounts of water in their cytoplasm

18 / 60

The genes encoding which of the following are extensively polymorphic (have multiple alleles or forms of the same gene)?

a. BCRs and TCRs

b. BCRs

c. TCRs

d. MHCs

19 / 60

Which of the following is NOT involved in the antigen-antibody interaction?

a. Hydrogen bonds

b. Van der Waals forces

c. Peptide bonds

d. Hydrophobic interactions

20 / 60

A serological reaction is set up in which the antigen is coated to larger carrier (particle), the antibody is soluble , and they bind and form an insoluble complex that is detected macroscopically. What type of assay is described?

a. Immunofluorescent

b. Agglutination

c. ELISA

d. Precipitation

21 / 60

When IgM on the surface of an immature B cell binds to a self-antigen , which of the following processes can occur ?

a. Apoptosis

b. Class switch

c. Differentiation

d. Affinity maturation

22 / 60

A medical student acquired hepatitis B through a needle-stick injury. The student had not received their vaccinations for this virus and eventually experienced liver problems. One of the clinical signs of this disease is j aundice , which turns the skin and sclera what color?

a. White

b. Yellow

c. Red

d. Black

23 / 60

On a serial dilution with the following tube set u p, 1:2, 1:4, 2:8, 1:16, 1:32, and 1:64 , there is no visible agglutination in the 1:64. What is the titer of the antibody?

a. 64

b. 16

c. 32

d. Cannot determine

24 / 60

Humoral immunity is mediated by antibodies from ____ and is involved in the elimination of ____ pathogens. Cell mediated immunity is mediated by ____ and is involved in the elimination of ____ pathogens.

a. B lymphocytes; Extracellular; T lymphocytes; Intracellular

b. T lymphocytes; Extracellular; B lymphocytes; Intracellular

c. B lymphocytes; Intracellular; T lymphocytes; Extracellular

d. T lymphocytes; Intracellular; B lymphocytes; Extracellular

25 / 60

How many genes does MHC-II have ?

a. 2 (HLA-DP alpha/beta)

b. 6 (HLA-DP alpha/beta, HIA-DQ alpha/beta, HLA-DR alpha/beta)

c. 4 (HLA-DQ alpha/beta, HLA-DR alpha/beta)

d. 2 (HLA-DQ alpha/beta)

26 / 60

A serological reaction is set up in which the antigen and antibody are both soluble and form an insoluble complex that is detected macroscopically. What type of assay was described?

a. Agglutination

b. Neutralization

c. Precipitation

d. Flocculation

27 / 60

Which of the following differentiates an antigen from an immunogen ?

a. An antigen can cause the production of antibodies

b. An antigen does not always elicit an immune response

c. Antigens are usually proteins or polysaccharides

d. An antigen is a foreign molecule

28 / 60

Which of the following best describes cross-reactivity ?

a. When one antibody can bind with one antigen

b. When multiple antibodies can bind with multiple antigens

c. When one antibody can bind with multiple antigens

d. When multiple antibodies can bind with one antigen

29 / 60

Which isotype of immunoglobulin is involved in a type I hypersensitivity?

a. IgM

b. IgG

c. IgA

d. IgE

30 / 60

Which of the following molecules is necessary (not accessory) for antigen recognition and T cell activation?

a. CD2

b. CD45R

c. CD28

d. CD3

31 / 60

protéine C réactif ត្រូវបានផលិតដោយសារ

a. TGF beta

b. IL-10

c. IL-12

d. IL-6

32 / 60

Récepteur de lymphocyte B គឺ:

a. récepteur de វីរុស Epstein-Barr

b. Immunoglobuline M membranaire

c. អង្កត់ Fc របស់ IgM

d. récepteur de C3a

33 / 60

មុខងារ effecteur របស់អង្គបដិបក្ខ ក្នុងការបំផ្លាញកោសិកា cible ប្រព្រិត្តឡើងតាមរយៈ

a. កោសិកា phagocyte

b. ផ្នែក F(ab)2 របស់អង្គបដិបក្ខ

c. récepteur នៃ compléments

d. ផ្នែក Fc របស់ អង្គបដិបក្ខ

34 / 60

Interleukine 2 (IL-2) សំយោគដោយៈ

a. macrophage

b. lymphocyte T

c. Éosinophile

d. lymphocyte B

35 / 60

CD8 ជា marqueur របស់

a. lymphocyte B

b. lymphocyte T cytotoxique

c. lymphocyte T auxilliaire

d. Cellule NK

36 / 60

The bonds involved in antigen-antibody interactions are

a. Weak and Strong bonds

b. Strong di-sulphide bonds

c. Weak hydrogen bonds and Vanderwalls forces

d. Strong covalent bonds

37 / 60

What vaccine should not be frozen:

a. MMR vaccine

b. Live attenuated vaccine

c. Chickenpox vaccine

d. Adjuvanted Vaccine

38 / 60

The cytotoxic T-cells is involved in:

a. Second line of defense

b. Third line of defense

c. First line of defense

d. All lines of organism defense

39 / 60

For vaccination against mycobacterial diseases such as tuberculosis, the most important facet of the immune response to be stimulated is:

a. A high titer of antibody

b. Macrophage-activating cell-mediated immunity

c. Cytotoxic T-cells

d. Antibody in the gut lumen

40 / 60

Which of the following is the site of T cell maturation?

a. Spleen

b. Thymus

c. Appendix

d. Bone marrow

41 / 60

The following statements are important mechanisms in which immunoglobulin molecules are essential included but except one?

a. Binding to cell surface receptors on phagocytes to initiate phagocytosis

b. Activation and signal transduction in suppressor T-cells

c. Activation and modulation of complement system

d. Activation and signal transduction in B cells

42 / 60

All the following comes under non-specific defence mechanism except

a. Cell mediated immunity

b. Complement system

c. Fever

d. Phagocytes

43 / 60

The immune cells that is linked between innate and adaptive immunity are:

a. NK T-cells

b. T-cells

c. B-cells

d. Macrophages

44 / 60

Which of the following statement is true regarding vaccination:

a. Vaccination is a method of passive immunization

b. Vaccination is a method of artificial passive immunization

c. Vaccination is a method of natural passive

d. Vaccination is a method of active immunization

45 / 60

HBV vaccine and HBIG are given at same time at two different injection sites within:

a. 12-24 h of delivery

b. 24-48 h of delivery

c. 48-72 h of delivery

d. 1 week of delivery

46 / 60

Which of the following antibodies have a positive effect on babies through breast feeding?

a. Ig G

b. Ig A

c. Ig D

d. Ig M

47 / 60

The herd immunity is:

a. The direct protection to a vaccinated individual as estimated from clinical trial

b. An indirect effect of vaccination due to reduced disease transmission

c. An estimate of the direct protection in a field study post licensure

d. The population level effect of a vaccination programme

48 / 60

Antigen-presenting cells that activate helper T cells must express which one of the following on their surfaces?

a. Ig E

b. Class I MHC antigens

c. Class II MHC antigens

d. Gamma interferon

49 / 60

Several of the complement components are:

a. Cytokines

b. Antibodies

c. Enzymes

d. Glycolipids

50 / 60

The Adverse events following immunization (AEFI) are divided into:

a. 5 categories

b. 4 categories

c. 6 categories

d. 3 categories

51 / 60

An immunoglobulin is a:

a. Glycoprotein

b. Polysaccharide

c. Protein

d. Glycolipid

52 / 60

Antigen presenting cells for vaccine are:

a. Macrophage

b. Dendritic cells

c. Neutrophile

d. NK cells

53 / 60

Often patients are immune to diseases like chicken pox once infecte. This immunity is an example of?

a. Artificially acquired passive immunity

b. Naturally acquired active immunity

c. Naturally acquired passive immunity

d. Artificially acquired active immunity

54 / 60

In the application Antigen- Antibody reaction, which one is not correct?

a. Immunofluorescence is to locate and identify antigen in tissues and clinical materials

b. Agglutination reaction is used to detect antigen or antibodies

c. Radioimmunoassay is measuring of concentration of antigen and antibody

d. Precipitation test is used to detect antigen or antibodies

55 / 60

Which of the following immune cells/ molecules are most effective at destroying intracellular pathogens?

a. B cells

b. Cytotoxic T cells

c. Complement

d. Helper T cells

56 / 60

All are 3 main effects of complement but except:

a. Inflammatory cell stimulation

b. Opsonization and pathogen clearance

c. Neutralization of antigens

d. Direct lysis of cells

57 / 60

What is the mode of administration for anti-measles vaccine?

a. Subcutaneous route (SC)

b. Oral route

c. Intramuscular (IM)

d. Intradermal route (ID)

58 / 60

Immunogen is:

a. A protein produced by B cells to respond to an immunogen and also reacts with an antigen

b. A chemical that inhibits the growth of micro organisms

c. A substance which reacts with the products of a specific immune response

d. A substance that induces a specific immune response

59 / 60

An antigen is:

a. A protein produced by B cells to respond to an immunogen and also reacts with an antigen

b. A substance that induces a specific immune response

c. A chemical that inhibits the growth of micro organisms

d. A substance which reacts with the products of a specific immune response

60 / 60

Which of the following immune mechanism is responsible for protecting us from diseases of other species?

a. Innate immunity

b. Passive immunity

c. Active immunity

d. Adaptive immunity

Your score is

The average score is 87%

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Immunologie Générale Et Appliquée Test

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និស្សិតអាចប្រាប់មកកាន់ពួកយើងបានដើម្បីកែកំហុស ឬអំពីបញ្ហាដោយអចេតនាណាមួយដែលកើតមានកំឡុងពេលធ្វើតេស្ត