Immunologie Générale Et Appliquée Test

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1 / 60

ម៉ូលេគុលដែលមានវត្តមាននៅលើផ្ទៃ ភ្នាស របស់ lymphocyte T គឺ:

a. Récepteurs សំរាប់គ្រាប់ឈាមក្រហមរបស់សត្វ ចៀម

b. Récepteurs របស់ វីរុស EBV

c. ជួនកាលមានម៉ូលេគុល CD86

d. ម៉ូលេគុល CD3 រួមជាមួយ récepteur de reconnaissance de l’Ag

2 / 60

ម៉ូលេគុល CMH classe II exprime នៅលើផ្ទៃភ្នាសនៃៈ

a. cellule dendritique

b. lymphocytes T naïve

c. Plaquettes

d. គ្រាប់ឈាមក្រហម

3 / 60

Au cours de la réaction immunitaire ។ ពពួក macrophages :

a. ផលិត IL-1

b. ផលិត protéine C réactif

c. បំផ្លាញ cellule infectée via activité cytotoxique directe

d. ផលិត IL-2

4 / 60

ការឆ្លើយតបរបស់ប្រព័ន្ធភាពសុំា adaptative régulé par:

a. Lymphocyte T régulateur

b. Lymphocyte T régulateur និង concentration de l’antigène.

c. concentration de l’antigène

d. neutrophile

5 / 60

កោសិកា Natural killer

a. មិនធ្វើសកម្មភាព cytolytique

b. មាន ម៉ូលេគុល CD3 នៅលើផ្ទៃភ្នាសខាងក្រៅ

c. មិនមានម៉ូលេគុល CD3 នៅលើផ្ទៃភ្នាសខាងក្រៅ

d. មិនមានម៉ូលេគុល CD56 នៅលើផ្ទៃភ្នាសខាងក្រៅ

6 / 60

réaction immunitaire primaire មានភាពខុសគ្នា នឹង ប្រតិកម្ម secondaire ដោយ :

a. អង្គបដិបក្ខ មាន សកម្មភាព ក្នុងរយៈពេលវែង

b. មាន ការផលិត យ៉ាងខ្លាំង នូវបរិមាណ អង្គបដិបក្ខ ប្រភេទ IgG

c. កដំណាក់កាល latence មានរយៈពេលខ្លី

d. មាន ការផលិត យ៉ាងខ្លាំង នូវបរិមាណ អង្គបដិបក្ខ ប្រភេទ IgM

7 / 60

Cytokine ចំបង ដែលផលិតដោយ lymphocyte Th1 គឺ:

a. Interleukine-4

b. Interferon gamma

c. Interleukine-10

d. Interferon alpha

8 / 60

lymphocyte T ចូលមកក្នុង ganglion lymphatique via:

a. capillaire lymphatique

b. Zone de lymphocyte T de région para cortical du ganglion lymphatique

c. vaisseaux lymphatique afférente

d. HEV

9 / 60

Interleukine 2 (IL-2) សំយោគដោយៈ

a. lymphocyte T

b. Éosinophile

c. macrophage

d. lymphocyte B

10 / 60

Immunoglobuline នៅលើផ្ទៃរបស់ lymphocyte B មានតួនាទី:

a. ក្នុងការធ្វើ dégranulation របស់ កោសិកា basophile

b. ក្នុងការភ្ញោច កោសិកា macrophage

c. ក្នុងការស្គាល់ អង់ទីហ្សែន spécifique

d. ក្នុងការបង្ហាញ អង់ទីហ្សែន ដល់ កោសិកា lymphocyte T

11 / 60

Toxines ត្រូវបាន neutralisé ដោយ

a. toxoïds

b. anticorps

c. endonucléase

d. compléments

12 / 60

All are the measure for post rabies exposure prophylaxis, but except one?

a. Suture the wound

b. Wound treatment

c. Vaccine administration

d. Rabies immunoglobulin

13 / 60

All are immune cells in innate immune system but except:

a. Lymphocytes

b. Macrophages

c. Dendritic cells

d. NK cells

14 / 60

Immunogen is:

a. A chemical that inhibits the growth of micro organisms

b. A substance which reacts with the products of a specific immune response

c. A substance that induces a specific immune response

d. A protein produced by B cells to respond to an immunogen and also reacts with an antigen

15 / 60

The antigen-antibody interactions occur in:

a. Three stages

b. Fifth stages

c. Fourth stages

d. Two stages

16 / 60

What vaccine should be avoided for the pregnant woman?

a. Diphtheria vaccine

b. IPV vaccine

c. OPV Vaccine

d. Tetanus vaccine

17 / 60

All are important characteristics of innate immunity but except:

a. Specific immunity

b. Exposure does not result in memory

c. Immediate response

d. Activated by cell death

18 / 60

All the following comes under non-specific defence mechanism except

a. Fever

b. Complement system

c. Cell mediated immunity

d. Phagocytes

19 / 60

Hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh blood group incompatibility requires maternal antibody to enter the fetal bloodstream. Therefore, the mediator of this disease is:

a. Ig E antibody

b. Ig G antibody

c. Ig A antibody

d. Ig M antibody

20 / 60

In order to elicit an immune response, a carbohydrate must be which of the following?

a. Bound to a protein carrier

b. Bound to a lipid carrier

c. Administered intranasally

d. Degraded

21 / 60

All the given vaccines are attenuated or inactivated whole pathogen except:

a. Hepatitis A

b. Sabin

c. Tetanus

d. Salk

22 / 60

Which of the following antibodies would most likely be found in body secretions such as tears, milk, saliva and mucus?

a. Ig D

b. Ig M

c. Ig G

d. Ig A

23 / 60

An epitope is:

a. an antibody

b. antigen determinant site

c. a hapten

d. a B-cell

24 / 60

Which category of hypersensitivity best describes hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh incompatibility?

a. Cytotoxic

b. Immune complex

c. Atopic or anaphylactic

d. Delayed

25 / 60

Which antibody is the first to be released into the blood following an infection?

a. Ig A

b. Ig M

c. Ig D

d. Ig G

26 / 60

The immunoglobulins participated in complement system formation are:

a. Ig G and Ig A

b. Ig G and Ig M

c. Ig G and Ig E

d. Ig D and Ig M

27 / 60

The complement system involved in the inflammation are:

a. C3a, C4a and C5a

b. C3a and C5a

c. C3b and C5b

d. C3 and C4

28 / 60

In the application Antigen- Antibody reaction, which one is correct?

a. Precipitation test is used to detect antigen or antibodies

b. Immunofluorescence is to locate and identify antigen in tissues and clinical materials

c. Agglutination reaction is measuring of concentration of antigen and antibody

d. Radioimmunoassay is identifying blood grouping and cross matching

29 / 60

Primary lymphoid organs include

a. Thymus and lymph nodes

b. Thymus and bone marrow

c. Thymus and spleen

d. Thymus and lymphoid follicle

30 / 60

The Adverse events following immunization (AEFI) are divided into:

a. 4 categories

b. 6 categories

c. 3 categories

d. 5 categories

31 / 60

The Follicular Dendritic Cells (FDCs) is located in:

a. Tonsils

b. Spleen and Lymph nodes

c. Bone marrow and Thymus

d. Peyer’s Patch

32 / 60

All are therapeutic applications of polyclonal antibodies but except one?

a. Hematologic disorders

b. Neurologic disorders

c. Laboratory tests

d. Skin diseases

33 / 60

Which transplant method would prevent the rejection of tissue after and organ transplant?

a. Using organs cloned from the cells of the patient

b. Using organs only from pigs or monkeys

c. Using an organ donated by a close relative because the proteins will always be identical to those of the patient

d. Using organs produced by genetic engineering to get rid of all proteins in the donated organs

34 / 60

T cell surface receptors for antigen partly recognize :

a. IL-2

b. Cytokines

c. Antibody

d. MHC

35 / 60

All of the following are true about CD8 T cells EXCEPT that they

a. Respond to antigenic peptides presented by MHC class II molecules.

b. Are part of adaptive immunity.

c. Respond to antigenic peptides presented by MHC class I molecules.

d. Are cytotoxicity against virus-infected host cells.

36 / 60

CD4+ cells recognize antigen displayed on MHC ____ molecules and CD8+ cells recognize antigen displayed on MHC ____ molecules. ____ has TH1 and TH2 cell populations.

a. Class II; Class I; CD8+

b. Class II; Class I; CD4+

c. Class I; Class II; CD4+

d. Class I; Class II; CD8+

37 / 60

A serological test that uses red blood cells coated with exogenous antigens such as bacterial polysaccharides as a method to detect patient antibodies against that exogenous antigen is called:

a. Complement fixation

b. Latex agglutination

c. Neutralization

d. Hemagglutination

38 / 60

Which of the following components of the adaptive immune system secretes immunoglobulin (Ig) ?

a. Activated B cell (plasma cell)

b. CD4+ activated T cell

c. CD4+ T cell and CD8+ T cell

d. CD8+ cytotoxic T cell (CTL)

39 / 60

Which of the following is a function of the adaptive immune system and NOT the innate immune system ?

a. Responds within minutes to infection.

b. Has preformed or rapidly formed components.

c. Distinguishes self from non-self

d. Uses pattern-recognition molecules.

40 / 60

Which of the following molecules is necessary (not accessory) for antigen recognition and T cell activation?

a. CD3

b. CD2

c. CD28

d. CD45R

41 / 60

Patient is a child who has no detectable T or B cells. This i mmunodeficiency is most probably the result of a defect in

a. T cell – B cell interaction.

b. The thymus.

c. Stem cells originating in the bone marrow.

d. The bursal equivalent.

42 / 60

Which of the following is NOT t rue regarding interferon ?

a. Interferon is viral specific, attacking viral proteins

b. Interferon prevents infection spreading from cell to cell.

c. Antigen-presenting cells are inactivated.

d. NK cells are activated by interferon and lyse infected cells

43 / 60

Which of the following components of the innate immune system involves recognition molecules such as mannan-binding lectin (MBL ) for bacteria with mannose on the surface ?

a. Natural Killer (NK) cells

b. Acute phase proteins

c. Interferons

d. Complement system

44 / 60

Which statement best describes what will most likely happen when an individual receives a vaccination containing a weakened pathogen ?

a. The ability to resist most types of diseases will increase.

b. The ability to fight disease caused by the pathogen will increase due to antibody production.

c. The ability to fight disease will increase due to antibodies received from the pathogen.

d. The ability to produce antibodies will decrease after the vaccination.

45 / 60

Which of the following is NOT true when comparing p rimary immune response to subsequent (secondary) immune response?

a. Primary response takes 5-10 days

b. Primary response has a high affinity for antigen

c. Secondary response takes 1-3 days

d. Primary response has IgM as the major antibody class

46 / 60

Activation of a T cell requires ____. Following activation, the T cell proliferates and differentiates into ____, then moves into peripheral tissues and other organs.

a. Recognition of antigen displayed on MHC molecules; Naïve cells

b. Recognition of antigen displayed on MHC molecules and a costimulatory signal; Effector cells

c. Recognition of antigen displayed on MHC molecules; Effector cells

d. Recognition of antigen displayed on MHC molecules and a costimulatory signal; Naïve cells

47 / 60

What types foes of cell is class MHC-I found on ?

a. B cells

b. Macrophage

c. Dendritic cells

d. All Nucleated cells

48 / 60

Protestive antibodies against infectious agents are often :

a. Natural killer

b. Toxoids

c. Autoantibodies

d. Neutralizing

49 / 60

Vaccination help prepare the body to fight invasions of a specific pathogen by:

a. Stimulating red blood cell production

b. Stimulating antibody production

c. Inhibiting antigen production

d. Inhibiting white blood cell production

50 / 60

The principle difference between type II and type III hypersensitivity reactions is the:

a. Whether the antigen is cellular or soluble

b. Involvement of helper T cells and macrophages

c. Isotype of antibody involved

d. Complement-mediated lysis of host cells

51 / 60

Which of the following is NOT true regarding the complement system?

a. They are serum proteins that form protein cascades, each activated component activating the next to generate a physiologic response

b. They attract phagocytes to both foreign material and self-cells

c. They can bind to bacteria, making holes in their membrane

d. Binding of MBLs to a bacterial capsule triggers the complement cascade

52 / 60

Which of the following is a messenge r that mediates the connection between the innate and adaptive immune system ?

a. Complement components

b. T and B lymphocytes

c. Cytokines

d. Interferons

53 / 60

A medical student acquired hepatitis B through a needle-stick injury. The student had not received their vaccinations for this virus and eventually experienced liver problems. One of the clinical signs of this disease is j aundice , which turns the skin and sclera what color?

a. Black

b. Yellow

c. Red

d. White

54 / 60

What are peripheral cells called if they have never come in contact with antigen?

a. Naïve cell

b. Immature cell

c. Plasma cell

d. Mature cell

55 / 60

All of the following are functions of IgG EXCEPT

a. Opsonize bacteria.

b. Cross the placenta

c. Facilitate ADCC

d. Be secreted into mucus

56 / 60

Anaphylatoxins are chemotaxins that stimulate phagocytosis and degranulation. Which complement components is/are mainly involved ?

a. C3

b. C2 & C4

c. C3 & C5

d. C5

57 / 60

When IgM on the surface of an immature B cell binds to a self-antigen , which of the following processes can occur ?

a. Apoptosis

b. Class switch

c. Differentiation

d. Affinity maturation

58 / 60

Which of the following best describes cross-reactivity ?

a. When multiple antibodies can bind with one antigen

b. When one antibody can bind with one antigen

c. When one antibody can bind with multiple antigens

d. When multiple antibodies can bind with multiple antigens

59 / 60

Which of the following components of the i nnate immune system involves cytokines produced by macrophages , which are produced during infection ?

a. Complement system

b. Acute phase proteins

c. Interferons

d. Oxygen dependent and independent killing

60 / 60

The antibody-binding site is formed primarily by

a. The variable regions of H chains.

b. The hypervariable regions of H chains.

c. The hypervariable regions of H and L chains.

d. The constant regions of H and L chains.

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Immunologie Générale Et Appliquée Test

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និស្សិតអាចប្រាប់មកកាន់ពួកយើងបានដើម្បីកែកំហុស ឬអំពីបញ្ហាដោយអចេតនាណាមួយដែលកើតមានកំឡុងពេលធ្វើតេស្ត