Immunologie Générale Et Appliquée Test

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1 / 60

The genes encoding which of the following are extensively polymorphic (have multiple alleles or forms of the same gene)?

a. TCRs

b. BCRs

c. MHCs

d. BCRs and TCRs

2 / 60

Which of the following best explains the reaction that takes in the latex agglutination slide test for CRP?

a. Latex particles are nonspecifically bound.

b. CRP is acting as an antibody

c. Latex particles are coated with CRP.

d. Latex particles are coated with anti-CRP.

3 / 60

An immune response against grass pollen often involves:

a. A hypersensitivity reaction

b. Reaction against MHC

c. Persistent infection by the pollen

d. Pathogen-associated molecular patterns

4 / 60

All of the following are functions of IgG EXCEPT

a. Cross the placenta

b. Opsonize bacteria.

c. Facilitate ADCC

d. Be secreted into mucus

5 / 60

Acute phase reactants have been determined to be elevated in a patient. What does this result on it own indicate about the patient?

a. Patient has a leukemia but not a lymphoma

b. There is a parasitic infection and not a viral infection

c. Inflammation of unknown cause in present.

d. This is a normal result.

6 / 60

Immunological memory is a feature exhibited by:

a. Innate immunity

b. Adaptive immunity

c. Humoral immunity

d. Cell-mediated immunity

7 / 60

IFN-γ stimulates ____ immunity by enhancing ____ T cells as well as activating macrophages and natural killer cells. IL-4/IL-5 stimulate ____ immunity (antibodies) by activating B cells and eosinophils and induce ____-type responses.

a. Cell-mediated; CD4+; Humoral; IgE

b. Cell-mediated; CD8+; Humoral; IgE

c. Humoral; CD4+; Cell-mediated; IgE

d. Humoral; CD8+; Cell-mediated; IgE

8 / 60

Which of the following is a function of the adaptive immune system and NOT the innate immune system ?

a. Responds within minutes to infection.

b. Has preformed or rapidly formed components.

c. Distinguishes self from non-self

d. Uses pattern-recognition molecules.

9 / 60

Regarding mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT), which of the following is secreted by B cells across the epithelium?

a. IgG

b. IgM

c. IgA

d. IgE

10 / 60

The two types of light chains are:

a. Lambda (λ) and kappa (κ)

b. Sigma (ς) and gamma (γ)

c. Alpha (  ) and beta (β)

d. Epsilon (ε) and delta (δ)

11 / 60

What is the function of major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules ?

a. Phagocytize foreign antigens

b. Present peptides to T cells

c. Present sugars to T cells

d. Lyse foreign antigens

12 / 60

Peptides antigens generated in the cytosolic compartment (intracellular infection, e.g. virus) bind to ____ MHC molecules for presentation to ____ T cells. Peptide antigens generated in vesicles (extracellular infection, e.g. bacteria) bind to ____ MHC molecules for presentation to ____ T cells.

a. Class II; CD8+; Class I; CD4+

b. Class II; CD4+; Class I; CD8+

c. Class I; CD4+; Class II; CD8+

d. Class I; CD8+; Class II; CD4+

13 / 60

If you want to make 5mL of a 1:20 dilution, how much serum would be needed?

a. 1 mL

b. 0.25mL

c. 0.5 mL

d. 2 mL

14 / 60

Which of the following best describes penicillin, a hapten ?

a. Small in size and needs to be coupled to induce an immune response

b. Small in size and can induce an immune response alone

c. Large in size and can induce an immune response alone

d. Large in size and needs to be coupled to induce an immune response

15 / 60

What types of professional APC cell that MHC-II present antigen to T H n a ïve ?

a. Macrophages

b. Dendritic cells

c. Essentially cells

d. B cells

16 / 60

Which of the following uses protein antigens separated by molecular weight using sodium dodecyl sulfate polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis ( SDS-PAGE) ?

a. ELISA (Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay)

b. Fluorescent antibody (fluorochromes)

c. FACS (fluorescence-activated cell sorting)

d. Western blotting (immunoblotting)

17 / 60

Where does a mature T cell encounter antigen for the first time?

a. On an APC in a secondary lymphoid organ

b. Freely in the blood stream

c. Freely in a secondary lymphoid organ

d. On an APC in a primary lymphoid organ

18 / 60

Cytotoxic T cells induced by infection with virus A will kill target cells

a. Infected by virus A and identical at class II MHC loci of the cytotoxic T cells.

b. Infected by virus A and identical at class I MHC loci of the cytotoxic T cells.

c. Infected with virus B and identical at class I MHC loci of the cytotoxic cells.

d. From the same host infected with any virus

19 / 60

Which of the following is an agent (e.g. aluminum salts, oil-based, virosomes) often used to modify or augment the effects of a vaccine by stimulating the immune system to respond to the vaccine more vigorously, and thus providing increased immunity to a particular disease?

a. Adjuvant

b. Stimulant

c. Antigen

d. Immunogen

20 / 60

When IgM on the surface of an immature B cell binds to a self-antigen , which of the following processes can occur ?

a. Apoptosis

b. Class switch

c. Affinity maturation

d. Differentiation

21 / 60

The principle difference between type II and type III hypersensitivity reactions is the:

a. Whether the antigen is cellular or soluble

b. Complement-mediated lysis of host cells

c. Isotype of antibody involved

d. Involvement of helper T cells and macrophages

22 / 60

The genes encoding which of the following can undergo hypermutation to create receptors that are an even better fit for foreign antigens ?

a. BCRs and TCRs

b. TCRs

c. BCRs

d. MHC

23 / 60

The inability of very young children to respond to the measles vaccine due to the persistence of maternal antibody is similar in principle to and exploited in which of the following?

a. Tolerance to self antigens

b. Neonatal inability to respond to T-independent antigens

c. Passive immunization as a means of preventing active sensitization (e.g., Rhogam injections)

d. Low dose tolerance regimens

24 / 60

All are the measure for post rabies exposure prophylaxis, but except one?

a. Suture the wound

b. Rabies immunoglobulin

c. Vaccine administration

d. Wound treatment

25 / 60

Tetanus toxoid is usually given to humans:

a. Only as a therapeutic agent, not prophylactically

b. Absorbed to aluminum hydroxide

c. Without the addition of any other agent

d. With complete Freund's adjuvant

26 / 60

The cytotoxic T-cells is involved in:

a. Second line of defense

b. Third line of defense

c. First line of defense

d. All lines of organism defense

27 / 60

A patient presents with an increased number of lymphocytes in his peripheral blood. Which of the following is an appropriate technique to find out which type of lymphocytes these are?

a. Radioimmunoassay (RIA)

b. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

c. Flow cytometric analysis

d. Western blotting

28 / 60

Which of the following antibodies have a positive effect on babies through breast feeding?

a. Ig A

b. Ig M

c. Ig D

d. Ig G

29 / 60

All are Antigen-Presenting Cells (APCs) but except:

a. Macrophages

b. Dendritic cells

c. B cells

d. NK cells

30 / 60

All are examples of names of monoclonal antibodies but except one?

a. Infliximab

b. Transtuzumab

c. Tamoxifen

d. Rituximab

31 / 60

HBV vaccine and HBIG are given at same time at two different injection sites within:

a. 24-48 h of delivery

b. 1 week of delivery

c. 48-72 h of delivery

d. 12-24 h of delivery

32 / 60

All are functions of immunoglobulins but except:

a. Fixation of complement

b. Secretion of cytokines

c. Binding to various cell types

d. Antigens bindings

33 / 60

All are factors influencing in immunogenicity but except:

a. Contribution of immunogen

b. Method of administration

c. Composition of antigen

d. Contribution of biological system

34 / 60

The complement system are synthesized by:

a. Liver, spleen and phagocytic cells

b. Liver, kidneys and spleen

c. Liver, bone marrow and thymus

d. Liver, lymph node and spleen

35 / 60

An immunoglobulin is a:

a. Glycoprotein

b. Protein

c. Polysaccharide

d. Glycolipid

36 / 60

The bonds involved in antigen-antibody interactions are

a. Strong covalent bonds

b. Strong di-sulphide bonds

c. Weak hydrogen bonds and Vanderwalls forces

d. Weak and Strong bonds

37 / 60

Which of the following substances will not stimulate an immune response unless they are bound to a larger molecule?

a. Antibody

b. Virus

c. Antigen

d. Hapten

38 / 60

The antigen-antibody interactions occur in:

a. Fifth stages

b. Fourth stages

c. Two stages

d. Three stages

39 / 60

What vaccine should not be frozen:

a. Adjuvanted Vaccine

b. Chickenpox vaccine

c. MMR vaccine

d. Live attenuated vaccine

40 / 60

The naive T cells are:

a. Mature recirculating T cells that have not yet encountered their antigens

b. Mature suppressor T cells that have not yet encountered their antigens

c. Mature T cells that located in germinal centre of lymph node

d. Immature recirculating T cells that have not yet encountered their antigens

41 / 60

The following statements are related to Rhesus D alloimmunization in pregnancy which statement is incorrect?

a. Rh(D) positive neonates of these mothers are at risk of developing hemolytic disease

b. Routine administration of anti-D Ig at 28 weeks of gestation or within 72 h of delivery

c. It develops as a result of maternal immune system exposure to Rh(+) RBCs

d. All Rh(-) pregnant women should do an antibody screen at last semester of prenatal visit

42 / 60

For vaccination against mycobacterial diseases such as tuberculosis, the most important facet of the immune response to be stimulated is:

a. Antibody in the gut lumen

b. Cytotoxic T-cells

c. Macrophage-activating cell-mediated immunity

d. A high titer of antibody

43 / 60

All are important characteristics of innate immunity but except:

a. Exposure does not result in memory

b. Immediate response

c. Specific immunity

d. Activated by cell death

44 / 60

What is a live attenuated vaccine?

a. HPV vaccine

b. HBV Vaccine

c. DTPa Vaccine

d. MMR Vaccine

45 / 60

Which of the following statement is true

a. All immunogens are antigens but all antigens are not immunogens

b. All immunogens are antigens and all antigens are immunogens

c. All immunogens are proteins and all proteins are immunogens

d. All immunogens are not antigens but all antigens are immunogens

46 / 60

An antigen is:

a. A chemical that inhibits the growth of micro organisms

b. A protein produced by B cells to respond to an immunogen and also reacts with an antigen

c. A substance which reacts with the products of a specific immune response

d. A substance that induces a specific immune response

47 / 60

The herd immunity is:

a. An estimate of the direct protection in a field study post licensure

b. The population level effect of a vaccination programme

c. The direct protection to a vaccinated individual as estimated from clinical trial

d. An indirect effect of vaccination due to reduced disease transmission

48 / 60

An epitope:

a. Is usually composed of a linear sequence of amino acids

b. Is the area on an antibody which contacts antigen

c. Requires both antigen-binding arms of the antibody molecule for its recognition

d. Is the area on an antigen which contacts antibody

49 / 60

The immunoglobulins transport across placenta mostly:

a. Ig G2

b. Ig G1

c. Ig G4

d. Ig G3

50 / 60

Cytokine ចំបង ដែលផលិតដោយ lymphocyte Th1 គឺ:

a. Interferon gamma

b. Interleukine-4

c. Interferon alpha

d. Interleukine-10

51 / 60

ម៉ូលេគុលដែលមានវត្តមាននៅលើផ្ទៃ ភ្នាស របស់ lymphocyte T គឺ:

a. ជួនកាលមានម៉ូលេគុល CD86

b. ម៉ូលេគុល CD3 រួមជាមួយ récepteur de reconnaissance de l’Ag

c. Récepteurs សំរាប់គ្រាប់ឈាមក្រហមរបស់សត្វ ចៀម

d. Récepteurs របស់ វីរុស EBV

52 / 60

វ៉ាក់សាំង virus vivant atténué est indiqué សំរាប់

a. អ្នកជំងឺដែលស្ថិតក្រោមការព្យាបាល ដោយ corticoïde ឬ radiothérapie

b. អ្នកជំងឺ leucémie

c. ស្ដ្រីមានផ្ទៃពោះ

d. ក្មេង អាយុក្រោម ៨ ឆ្នាំ

53 / 60

Interleukine 2 (IL-2) សំយោគដោយៈ

a. macrophage

b. Éosinophile

c. lymphocyte B

d. lymphocyte T

54 / 60

ម៉ូលេគុលដែលបង្ហាញនៅលើផ្ទៃភ្នាសរបស់ lymphocyte T CD4 ដែលភ្ជាប់ទៅនឹងម៉ូលេគុល B7 គឺ :

a. ICAM-1

b. CD56

c. CD38

d. CD28

55 / 60

មុខងារ effecteur របស់អង្គបដិបក្ខ ក្នុងការបំផ្លាញកោសិកា cible ប្រព្រិត្តឡើងតាមរយៈ

a. récepteur នៃ compléments

b. ផ្នែក Fc របស់ អង្គបដិបក្ខ

c. កោសិកា phagocyte

d. ផ្នែក F(ab)2 របស់អង្គបដិបក្ខ

56 / 60

Toxines ត្រូវបាន neutralisé ដោយ

a. toxoïds

b. compléments

c. anticorps

d. endonucléase

57 / 60

វ៉ាក់សាំង ការពាររបេងជា វ៉ាក់សាំងដែល ភ្ញោចជាសំខាន់

a. លើ immunité innée

b. លើការផលិត អង្គបដិបក្ខ

c. លើ immunité humorale

d. លើ immunité à médiation cellulaire

58 / 60

នៅក្នុងការឆ្លើយតបរបស់ប្រព័ន្ធភាពសុំាទៅនឹងអង់ទីហ្សែន មួយៈ

a. lymphocyte B ភ្ញោច cellule dendritique

b. lymphocyte T ភ្ញោចការផលិត អង្គបដិបក្ខ

c. lymphocyte T រារាំងនិងបន្ថយការផលិតអង្គបដិបក្ខ

d. cellule dendritique mature ភ្ញោច lymphocyte T via la présentation de l’Ag

59 / 60

marqueur របស់ lymphocyte B

a. CD56

b. CD19

c. CD16

d. CMH classe II

60 / 60

Récepteur de lymphocyte B គឺ:

a. អង្កត់ Fc របស់ IgM

b. récepteur de វីរុស Epstein-Barr

c. Immunoglobuline M membranaire

d. récepteur de C3a

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Immunologie Générale Et Appliquée Test

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