Oral Biology Test 0% 6 votes, 4.3 avg 753 You will have 60 minutes to complete all the questions. After the timer reaches 60 minutes, the exam will end and be saved automatically. Good luck! *Fingers crossed* The timer has been reached. The exam has now been terminated and saved. Oral Biology Test 1 / 60 What is the biggest conflict of using mesenchymal stem cells? a. Cancer cause b. Ethic c. Homogenous nature d. Heterogenous nature 2 / 60 What do Growth Factors Do? a. Rejuvenate aging tissues b. Enhance cellular proliferation c. Repair damaged cells d. Maintain optimum function of the target organ e. All above 3 / 60 In order to identify multi-potency stem cells, ones has to undergo cellar differentiation EXCLUDE? a. Fat b. Bone c. Cartilage d. Neuron e. Skin 4 / 60 The ICM, inner cell mass, cells have the potential to generate any cell type of the body, after implantation, they are ————– as they differentiate to other cell types with more limited developmental potential. ? a. Change b. No change c. Quickly deleted d. Quickly depleted 5 / 60 In transcription an mRNA chain is generated, with both strands of the DNA double helix in the genome as a template.? a. False b. True 6 / 60 Four transcription factors (Oct4, Sox2, Klf4, and c-Myc) sometimes is called Yamanaka’s factors.? a. False b. True 7 / 60 Event during or following protein translation ? a. Proteolysis and modification b. Proteolysis and protein folding c. Post-translational modification and protein folding d. Proteolysis and post-translatoinal modification 8 / 60 The biggest concern of using iPSc as a regenerative tool is the possible of cancer provoke due to infection of transcription factors.? a. False b. True 9 / 60 Mesenchymal stem cells is derived from bone marrow. So they can differentiate into hematopoietic cell line.? a. True b. False 10 / 60 The inner cell mass cells have the potential to generate any cell type of the body, but after implantation, they are quickly depleted as they differentiate to other cell types with more limited developmental potential. ? a. True b. False 11 / 60 ES will support clinical research on the differentiation and function of human tissues and provide material for testing that may improve the safety and efficacy of human drugs ? a. False b. True 12 / 60 The process by which information from a gene is used in the synthesis of a functional gene product such as a protein? a. Gene expression b. Transcription factor c. Transcriptional regulation d. Response element e. Transcription 13 / 60 The first differentiation event in humans occurs at approximately —— days of development, when an outer layer of cells committed to becoming part of the placenta (the trophectoderm) separates from the inner cell mass (ICM). ? a. 1-3 day b. 3-5 days c. 5-7 days d. 10-14 days 14 / 60 Cre-Lox recombination is a site-specific recombinase technology, used to carry out deletions, insertions, translocations and inversions at specific sites? a. In RNA b. In DNA c. In target cell d. In target animal e. Inside of cellular cytoplasm 15 / 60 Why generation of iPSc is so attractive to scientist worldwide? a. Ease to perform with no risk of cancer and ethical issue b. Generation of patient-specific cell line and immune match c. No controversial in term of ethical issue, and ready for use d. No concern on cancer risk, and cheap e. Every patient could generation their own cell line without concern of ethical issue and immune rejection 16 / 60 The biggest different of outcome between repair and regeneration on tissue is tissue scaring.? a. Tissue function b. Distortion of connective tissue c. False d. True 17 / 60 Repression, or suppression – decrease the rate of gene transcription? a. Corepressor b. Downregulation c. Upregulation d. Coactivator 18 / 60 Work flow of generating iPSc? a. Isolate and culture host cell, using lentinovirus, harvest cell and culture under feeder layer, get an iPSc. b. Isolate and culture host cell, using adenovirus, harvest cell and culture under feeder layer, get an iPSc. c. Isolate and culture host cell, using transcription factors, harvest cell and culture under feeder layer, get an iPSc. d. Isolate and culture host cell, using retrovirus, harvest cell and culture under feeder layer, get an iPSc. 19 / 60 During the pre-eruptive phase of tooth eruption: a. The developed tooth at the bell stage lies within a crypt of bone b. The root is formed c. Cementoblasts begin to secrete cementoid d. The apical foramen is beginning to close 20 / 60 The Hertwig epithelial root sheath can’t be seen as a continuous layer in the developing root because: a. The dentin formation b. The rapid epithelial sheath destruction after dentin formation c. The rapid epithelial sheath proliferation d. All are corrected 21 / 60 Enamel pearls occur in: a. Cervical third of molars roots b. Furcation area of premolars c. Furcation area of molars d. Apical third of molars roots 22 / 60 The cell rests of Malassez are derivatives of: a. Cervical ameloblasts b. Dental papilla c. Outer enamel epithelium d. Epithelial root sheath 23 / 60 Chewing sequence could be divided into: a. Pre-swallow series b. Preparatory series c. All are corrected d. Reduction series 24 / 60 The probable reasons for a high incidence of dental caries in the teenage population relates most directly to: a. Rapid growth b. Negligence in visiting the dentist c. Frequency of sucrose intake d. Carelessness in oral hygiene habits 25 / 60 The dental sac plays an important role in the formation of all of the following except: a. Dentin of the root b. Periodontal ligament c. Cementum d. Alveolar bone proper 26 / 60 Supernumerary roots occur mainly with: a. Permanent third molars b. Permanent second molars c. Permanent second premolars d. Permanent first molars 27 / 60 The nerve of the third branchial arch is: a. The facial (VII) nerve b. Two branches of the vagus (X) nerve c. The glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve d. The superior laryngeal nerves 28 / 60 Concrescence is: a. Distorted root or roots in a formed tooth b. An extra root or accessory roots in a formed tooth c. A spherical projection on the cemental root surface d. A union of root structure of two or more teeth through cementum only 29 / 60 If the process of morphogenesis is disturbed: a. Enamel formation will be abnormal b. Changes will occur in the shape of crown and root c. Absence of cementum d. Dentin formation will be abnormal 30 / 60 All of the following are involved in the formation of a tooth except: a. Epithelial root sheath b. Dental lamina c. Successional lamina d. Vestibular lamina 31 / 60 Taste bud is: a. The number of taste buds begins declining rapidly by age 50 b. Approximately, 10,000 of taste buds are present in young adults c. All are corrected d. Receptor organs of taste, located primarily in the oral cavity 32 / 60 Passive eruption is: a. Growth in the length of the root b. Apical migration of the junctional epithelium c. The formation of cellular cementum d. Deposition of bone at the fundus 33 / 60 One of the following is associated with an erupted tooth: a. Outer Enamel epithelium b. Stratum intermedium c. Cervical loop d. Epithelial rests of Malassez 34 / 60 All of the following does occur during the eruptive phase, except: a. Enamel formation b. Increased thickness of cementum c. Narrowing of apical foramen d. Dentin deposition 35 / 60 Initiation of dental caries depends on: a. Viscosity of saliva b. Localization of acid over tooth surface c. Availability of carbohydrate food d. formation of large amount of acid 36 / 60 Appositional stage is confined from: a. Dental lamina b. Cap stage c. Bud stage d. Bell stage 37 / 60 Facial swellings refer to: a. The two mandibular prominences, the two maxillary prominences and the frontonasal prominence b. The five facial primordia which form the eyes, nose, mouth and jaw c. The five prominences that are apparent following proliferation and migration of neural crest cells d. All are corrected 38 / 60 All of the following is a part of the tooth germ except: a. Dental lamina b. Dental papilla c. Dental follicle d. Enamel organ 39 / 60 Streptococcus mutants is involved in dental caries initiation Other bacteria also involved is: a. S salivary b. S macae c. S sarcinus d. S sanguis 40 / 60 Chemico-parasitic theory of dental caries is proposed by: a. Gottlieb b. Miller c. GV Black d. Schwartz 41 / 60 Cleft palate may result from all of the following except a. Lack of shelf movement b. Lack of fusion of the primary with the secondary palate c. Reduced epithelial adhesiveness of the palatal shelves d. Deficiency in crest derived mesenchyme 42 / 60 Taste Bud major types Cells: a. Supporting cells, basal cells, epithelial cells b. Supporting cells, receptor cells, epithelial cells c. Supporting cells, receptor cells, basal cells d. All are corrected 43 / 60 The number of baby teeth is: a. 22 b. 32 c. 23 d. 20 44 / 60 The most pronounced effect on the oral microflora of a reduction in rate of salivary flow is a: a. Significant increase in number of oral bacteria b. Shift towards more acidogenic microflora c. shift towards more aerobic microflora d. Significant decrease in number of oral bacteria 45 / 60 The muscles of mastication are derived from: a. Occipital myotomes b. 3rd branchial arch c. 2nd branchial arch d. The first pharyngeal arch 46 / 60 One of the following causes the discolorations of teeth is: a. Gentamycin b. Penicillin c. Flagyl d. Tetracycline 47 / 60 Third stage of deglutition is: a. The stage is involuntary, during 8-20 seconds b. Start from the upper esophageal sphincter c. All are corrected d. The bolus passes into stomach at the lower esophageal sphincter 48 / 60 The muscles are derived from the first brachial arch: a. The muscles of mastication and anterior belly of digastric b. The muscles of mastication, anterior and posterior bellies of digastric and geniohyoid c. The muscles of mastication and anterior and posterior bellies of digastric d. The muscles of mastication 49 / 60 Tongue begins to develop at: a. 8th wiu b. 6th wiu c. 4th wiu d. 11th wiu 50 / 60 The term for a fertilized egg from conception until the end of two months development: a. Zygote b. Ovary c. Fetus d. Embryo 51 / 60 The extrinsic muscles of the tongue: a. Develop from the maxillary process b. Develop from occipital myotomes c. Develop from tuberculum impar d. Develop from the second branchial arch 52 / 60 Appositional stage is confined to: a. Dental lamina b. Bud stage c. Cap stage d. Bell stage 53 / 60 The palatal shelves: a. Develop from the maxillary prominences b. Develop from the lateral nasal processes c. Develop from the medial nasal processes d. From the primary palate 54 / 60 The dental lamina is induced to proliferate into a tooth bud by the: a. Ecto-mesenchyme b. Basement membrane c. Nerve endings d. Oral epithelium 55 / 60 The lateral spread of dental caries is facilitated mostly by the: a. Dentinoenamel junction b. Enamel spindles c. Striae of Retzius d. Enamel lamellae 56 / 60 The development of secondary palate begins from: a. 15-16 WIU b. 4-5 WIU c. 3-4 WIU d. 6-9 WIU 57 / 60 All the statement below is true about the classification of taste, except: a. People sometimes identify multiple component solutions as a single component b. There has recently been discovered an "umami" receptor on the tongue c. The four familiar categories are sweet, salty, sour, and bitter d. A component that can be reliably identified in isolation can be identified in multiple component mixtures 58 / 60 Regarding deglutition: a. Soft palate moves upward b. Contraction of cricopharyngeal c. Co-ordinated reflex d. Inspiration cessation 59 / 60 The maxillary processes: a. Are derived from the first pharyngeal arch b. Form the entire upper lip c. Are covered with endoderm d. Form the primary palate 60 / 60 Each taste bud consists of: a. 45-90 epithelial cells b. 40-100 epithelial cells c. All are corrected d. 50-80 epithelial cells Your score isThe average score is 80% Facebook 0% Restart quiz Any comments? Send feedback