/207 240 Oral Biology Preparation (Pr.Ast. Muy Say ) 1 / 207 1) The apposition stage of tooth development begins: a. When the first layer of enamel lay down b. The enamel, cementum and dentin are secreted in layers c. The root of the tooth begins to develop d. The first layer of dentine is deposited 2 / 207 2) The function of the inner enamel epithelium is: a. Protects the enamel after eruption b. Exerts organization influence on the dental papilla cells c. Provides the enamel organs with alkaline phosphatase d. Lays down dentin matrix 3 / 207 3) All of the following is a function of dental sac except: a. Formation of cementum b. Nutrition of enamel organ c. Formation of supporting alveolar bone d. Formation of supporting alveolar bone 4 / 207 4) All of the following anomalies of the head and neck, except a. A branchial fistula refers to a canal that has both an internal and external opening such as the side of the neck b. Branchial fistulas result from persistence of the first pharyngeal membrane and the second pharyngeal groove c. Branchial sinuses result from failure of the second pharyngeal groove and cervical sinus to obliterate d. Branchial cysts result from persistence of remnants of the second pharyngeal groove and the cervical sinus 5 / 207 5) For a bacterium to be seriously considered in the etiology of dental caries, it must: a. Produce extracellular amylopectin b. Exist regularly in the dental plaque c. Be lethal for gnotobiotic animals d. Produce intracellular dextran’s 6 / 207 6) The Hertwig epithelial root sheath can’t be seen as a continuous layer in the developing root because: a. The rapid epithelial sheath proliferation b. The rapid epithelial sheath destruction after dentin formation c. All are corrected d. The dentin formation 7 / 207 7) Each taste bud consists of: a. All are corrected b. 45-90 epithelial cells c. 50-80 epithelial cells d. 40-100 epithelial cells 8 / 207 8) One of muscles of mastication arise from the zygomatic arch and inserts on ramus of the mandible is: a. Temporalis b. Lateral pterygoid c. Medial pterygoid d. Masseter 9 / 207 9) Active eruption of the tooth: a. Begins when the apical cementum is deposited on the roots of the tooth b. Continues until exposure of the cementum has occurred c. Begins as the occlusal tip starts moving towards the occlusal plane d. Begins as soon as the roots have begun to develop 10 / 207 10) If the process of morphogenesis is disturbed: a. Enamel formation will be abnormal b. Changes will occur in the shape of crown and root c. Absence of cementum d. Dentin formation will be abnormal 11 / 207 11) In humans, which branchial arch rudimentary is: a. 5th b. 6th c. 2nd d. 4th 12 / 207 12) The three major salivary glands are: a. Thyroid, parotid, sublingual b. Submandibular, gingival cervicular fluid and parotid, c. Minor salivary glands, Von Ebner's, thyroid d. Parotid, sublingual, and submandibular 13 / 207 13) During the pre-eruptive phase of tooth eruption: a. The developed tooth at the bell stage lies within a crypt of bone b. The root is formed c. Cementoblasts begin to secrete cementoid d. The apical foramen is beginning to close 14 / 207 14) One of the following indicates the major components of a tooth germ: a. The cervical loop, Hertwig's sheath and the inner enamel epithelium b. The dental pulp, the dental sac and the dental lamina c. The dental lamina, the stellate reticulum and the stratum intermedium d. The dental organ, the dental papilla and the dental sac 15 / 207 15) The term for a fertilized egg from conception until the end of two months development: a. Embryo b. Zygote c. Ovary d. Fetus 16 / 207 16) Palatal processes of the maxilla are derived from: a. Copula of His b. Mandibular processes c. Medial nasal process d. Horizontal process of the maxillary prominences 17 / 207 17) The ectomesenchymal cell condensation just beneath the enamel organ is called: a. Dental follicle b. Dental papilla c. Dental sac d. pulp 18 / 207 18) The dental sac gives rise to: a. Cementoblasts and periodontal ligament b. Odontoblasts and Cementoblasts c. Periodontal ligament and dental pulp d. Dental pulp and attachment epithelium 19 / 207 19) All of the following are involved in the formation of a tooth except: a. Successional lamina b. Dental lamina c. Epithelial root sheath d. Vestibular lamina 20 / 207 20) Cavity formation in a tooth, due to dental caries is due to: a. Mastectomy force and unrelated to the extent of carious process b. Destructive potential of Streptococcus mutans c. Lateral spread of caries along DEJ and weakening of the outer covering enamel d. Destructive potential of Lactobacillus acidophilus 21 / 207 21) One of the following occurs during the pre-eruptive phase of a tooth: a. Maturation of enamel b. Differentiation of the stratum intermedium c. Formation of the dental sac d. Formation of stellate reticulum 22 / 207 22) Caries associated with pre-eruptive enamel hypoplasia: a. Incipient caries b. Chronic caries c. Occult caries d. Secondary caries 23 / 207 23) Inner enamel epithelium: a. Consists of a single layer of cuboidal epithelial cells b. Consists of a single layer of polyhedral epithelial cells c. Consists of a single layer of polygonal epithelial cells d. Consists of a single layer of columnar epithelial cells 24 / 207 24) Functions of the digestive system are: a. Undigested food products b. All are corrected c. Prehension, ingestion, deglutition d. Absorption of nutrients, mastication 25 / 207 25) The medial pterygoid follows the same angle as masseter arising from the medial pterygoid plate, where does it attach on the mandible at: a. Condyloid process b. Mental protuberance c. Coronoid process d. Ramus and angle 26 / 207 26) Which minor salivary glands are purely serous: a. Lingual glands of Blandin Nuhn b. Lingual glands of Von Ebner c. Labial and buccal glands d. Palatine gland 27 / 207 27) By the 6th week of tooth development, the oral epithelium is: a. 2-5 layers thickness b. 3-4 layers thickness c. 2-3 layers thickness d. 4-5 layers thickness 28 / 207 28) The reduced enamel epithelium is derived from: a. Maturative ameloblasts and stratum intermedium b. Protective ameloblasts, stratum intermedium, stellate reticulum and outer enamel epithelium c. Stratum intermedium, stellate reticulum and outer dental epithelium d. Stratum intermedium, stellate reticulum and inner epithelium 29 / 207 29) One of the following represents the correct order of prenatal development: a. fetal, preimplantation, embryonic b. Preimplantation, fetal, embryonic c. fetal, embryonic, preimplantation d. Preimplantation, embryonic, fetal 30 / 207 30) In human’s fertilization normally occurs in: a. uterus vagina b. ovary c. zona pellucida d. fallopian tube 31 / 207 31) The embryo’s stomodeum is lined by: a. Endoderm b. Mesoderm c. Ectomesenchyme d. Ectoderm 32 / 207 32) Taste Bud major types Cells: a. Supporting cells, receptor cells, basal cells b. Supporting cells, receptor cells, epithelial cells c. All are corrected d. Supporting cells, basal cells, epithelial cells 33 / 207 33) During tooth eruption, the permanent successors of the primary teeth move occlusal and: a. Mesial b. Distal c. Buccal d. Lingual 34 / 207 34) Pharyngeal pouches: a. Separate the branchial arches internally b. Give rise to structures such as the external acoustic meatus c. All are corrected d. Separate the branchial arches externally 35 / 207 35) The name of the second branchial arch is: a. Hyoid arch b. Mandibular arch c. All are corrected d. Maxillary arch 36 / 207 36) The statements about the branchial apparatus are true except: a. The arches are composed of a mesenchymal core that is covered externally by ectoderm and internally by endoderm b. The mesenchymal core is derived not only from intraembryonic mesoderm, but also from neural crest cells c. Each arch contains an aortic arch, cartilage, a nerve, and striated muscles d. The second arch grows over the third and fourth on the side of the neck to create the cervical sinus 37 / 207 37) After fertilization of ovum series of cell division give rise to an egg cell mass called: a. Morula b. Embryo c. Placenta d. Embryonic disc 38 / 207 38) All the statement about epithelial diaphragm except: a. It grows in a horizontal plane b. adjacent to diaphragm c. It produces narrowing of the wide cervical opening d. Its growing end is located coronal to the root sheath e. Its proliferation is accompanied by proliferation of pulp cells 39 / 207 39) Initiation of dental caries depends on: a. formation of large amount of acid b. Availability of carbohydrate food c. Localization of acid over tooth surface d. Viscosity of saliva 40 / 207 40) One of the following is true about ankylosis: a. The active eruption of an ankylosed tooth continues b. Ankylosed teeth do not show Howship's lacunae on the root c. Is a bony union between the alveolar bone and the roots of teeth d. Is a union of the tooth with the periodontal ligament 41 / 207 41) All the statement about early dental development, except: a. In the cap stage the inner and outer enamel epithelial cells are completely alike b. The dental papilla and the dental sac develop in the cap stage c. The transition from cap stage to bell stage is particularly marked by the full differentiation of stellate reticulum d. Cap stage is accomplished by unequal growth in different parts 42 / 207 42) The epithelial rests in the periodontal ligament are derived from: a. Dental sac b. Hertwing's epithelial root sheath c. Vestibular lamina d. Dental pulp 43 / 207 43) Complete tongue activity occurs in: a. Jaw movements, respiration, speech, taste, mastication, swallowing, and sucking b. All are corrected c. Jaw movements, laughing, speech, taste, mastication, swallowing, and sucking d. Sleeping, respiration, speech, taste, mastication, swallowing, and sucking 44 / 207 44) The most likely factor responsible for tooth eruption is: a. Bone growth b. The developing periodontal ligament c. The growing root d. Vascular pressure 45 / 207 45) The tooth in permanent dentition is the most susceptible to dental caries is: a. Mandibular second molar b. Mandibular first molar c. Maxillary first premolar d. Maxillary second molar 46 / 207 46) Dental caries can be classified with respect to the site of the lesion: a. Recurrent caries b. All are corrected c. Smooth surface, root surface caries d. Pit or fissure caries 47 / 207 47) Bacteria responsible for initiation of caries is: a. Actinomycosis b. Streptococcus viridian c. Lactobacillus d. Streptococcus mutants 48 / 207 48) One of the following should a woman avoid while she is pregnant: a. Smoking cigarettes b. All of these c. Being under 20 and over 40 years of age d. Not having adequate prenatal medical supervision 49 / 207 49) Four basic qualities: a. Sour b. All are corrected c. Salty, bitter d. Sweet 50 / 207 50) Secondary palate is: 50) 1st branchial arch a. 3rd branchial arch b. Characterized by the formation of two palatal shelves on the maxillary prominences c. 2nd branchial arch d. 1st branchial arch 51 / 207 51) After ovulation the ovum can be fertilized for about: a. More than 48 hours b. 5-10 hours c. 24-48 hours d. 1-3 hours e. 4-20 hours 52 / 207 52) When a tooth first erupts into the oral cavity, the attachment epithelial cuff of epithelium derived from: a. Epithelial root sheath of Hertwig's b. Reduced dental epithelium c. Dental lamina d. Epithelial rests of Malassez 53 / 207 53) Supernumerary roots occur mainly with: a. Permanent second premolars b. Permanent third molars c. Permanent second molars d. Permanent first molars 54 / 207 54) The occipital somite’s myotomes give rise to: a. Muscles of mastication b. Muscles of cheek c. Muscles of the lip d. Muscles of the tongue 55 / 207 55) First branchial arch is supplied by: a. Hypoglossal nerve b. Facial nerve (VII) c. Mandibular nerve d. Glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve 56 / 207 56) The map of taste buds for: a. All of are corrected b. Salt is on either side of the front of the tongue c. Sweet are on the tip and sour is behind of the tongue d. Bitter are on way in the back of the tongue; 57 / 207 57) Formation of the nose includes: a. The formation of a single nasal placode that later becomes partitioned b. The progression from nasal placode to nasal pit to a nasal cavity (or nostril) c. All are corrected d. Formation of nasal placodes on the maxillary prominences of the face 58 / 207 58) Taste buds contain: a. Olfactory receptors b. Microvilli c. Papillae d. All of are corrected 59 / 207 59) Histological changes occurring during the eruptive phase: a. Formation of the attachment apparatus only b. Root formation only c. All are corrected d. Dento-gingival junction appearance only 60 / 207 60) The muscles are derived from the first brachial arch: a. The muscles of mastication, anterior and posterior bellies of digastric and geniohyoid b. The muscles of mastication c. The muscles of mastication and anterior belly of digastric d. The muscles of mastication and anterior and posterior bellies of digastric 61 / 207 61) Primordium for the permanent dentition appears as an extension of dental lamina into the ectomesenchym at: a. Lingual to the developing primary tooth germ b. Distal to the developing primary tooth germ c. Labial to the developing primary tooth germ d. Mesial to the developing primary tooth germ 62 / 207 62) Concerning the tongue: a. All are corrected b. The anterior two-thirds is innervated by a branch of the nerve of the first pharyngeal arch c. The glossopharyngeal nerve innervates the posterior third of the tongue as well as the circumvallate papillae d. Most of the taste buds in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue are innervated by the chorda tympani branch of Cranial nerf VII 63 / 207 63) Shedding is predominantly the: a. Physiologic loss of impacted teeth b. Pathologic loss of non-vital primary teeth c. Physiologic loss of permanent teeth d. Physiologic loss of primary teeth 64 / 207 64) The down growth of an epithelial thickening buccal to the dental lamina is known as: a. Vestibular lamina b. Successional dental lamina c. Lateral dental lamina d. Linguo-alveolar Sulcus 65 / 207 65) First stage of deglutition is: a. A mass of chewed, moistened food, a bolus, is moved to the back of the oral cavity by the tongue b. Voluntary and initiate deglutition process c. The lip and buccal muscles help keep bolus from dispersing d. All are corrected 66 / 207 66) The lateral spread of dental caries is facilitated mostly by the: a. Enamel lamellae b. Dentinoenamel junction c. Enamel spindles d. Striae of Retzius 67 / 207 67) If Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath does not disintegrate: a. No cementum will be formed on the radicular dentin b. The apical end of the junctional epithelium will lie occlusal to the cemento-enamel junction c. Predentine will form on the outer surface of the radicular dentin d. It is likely that some of the enamel will be resorbed 68 / 207 68) The following is component of the enamel organ except: a. Outer enamel epithelium b. Stratum intermedium c. Odontoblasts d. Ameloblasts 69 / 207 69) In patient with reduced salivary flow the carious incidence is: a. More than the patient with normal salivary flow b. All of are corrected c. Less than the patient with normal salivary flow d. Unaffected 70 / 207 70) Another term for the deglutition of food is: a. Ingestion b. Peristalsis c. Swallowing d. Digestion 71 / 207 71) Third stage of deglutition is: a. The stage is involuntary, during 8-20 seconds b. The bolus passes into stomach at the lower esophageal sphincter c. Start from the upper esophageal sphincter d. All are corrected 72 / 207 72) The soft palate develops from: a. Palatal processes fused with the nasal septum b. Primary palate c. Medial nasal process d. Palatal processes which are not fused with nasal septum 73 / 207 73) One of the following characterize prenatal development It is: a. All are corrected b. A highly critical stage in human development c. The stage during which most development occurs at the most rapid rate in the human life span d. The shortest stage of the human life span 74 / 207 74) Appositional stage is confined to: a. Bell stage b. Dental lamina c. Bud stage d. Cap stage 75 / 207 75) Taste bud is: a. The number of taste buds begins declining rapidly by age 50 b. Receptor organs of taste, located primarily in the oral cavity c. Approximately, 10,000 of taste buds are present in young adults d. All are corrected 76 / 207 76) Streptococcus mutants is involved in dental caries initiation Other bacteria also involved is: a. S macae b. S sarcinus c. S sanguis d. S salivary 77 / 207 77) Dental follicle cells: a. Differentiate into the ameloblast layer b. Migrate to dentin surface of the root and differentiate into the cementoblast c. Are found within the enamel organ d. Differentiate into the odontoblast layer 78 / 207 78) All of the following is a bout of Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath except: a. It is derived from stomodeal ectoderm b. It remains intact until a layer of cementum has been formed c. It lacks a stellate reticulum d. Its remnants form epithelial rests 79 / 207 79) Streptococcus mutans is considered to be a principal etiologic agent of caries because it produces acid and it: a. Lives symbiotically with lactobacillus b. Forms a gelatinous matrix c. Metabolizes substrate from saliva d. Derives energy from enamel constituents 80 / 207 80) The Stomodeum is lined by: a. Ectoderm b. Mesoderm c. Endoderm d. Endoderm and Mesoderm 81 / 207 81) The Hertwig epithelial root sheath of disintegrates: a. After odontoblastic differentiation and before dentin matrix formation b. After cementum formation c. Before odontoblastic differentiation d. After odontoblastic differentiation and dentin matrix deposition 82 / 207 82) The following organisms is found in deep carious lesions rather than in incipient lesions is: a. Lactobacilli b. Bacteroides c. Streptococci d. Veillonella 83 / 207 83) The dental sac is: a. The condensation of the ectomesenchymal cells surrounding Enamel organ b. The condensation of the ectomesenchymal cells surrounding the enamel organ and dental papilla c. All are corrected d. The condensation of the ectomesenchymal cells surrounding dental papilla 84 / 207 84) Second stage of deglutition is: a. Involuntary rapid and the entire process occurs in less than 2 seconds b. The bolus is propelled by pumping action of tongue base and constriction of pharyngeal muscles c. All are corrected d. Start from the upper esophageal sphincter into the esophagus 85 / 207 85) Normal function of saliva: a. Cleansing, lubrication, digestion, enables tasting b. All are corrected c. Cellular maintenance, enables swallowing, hydrating–moisturizing d. Antimicrobial, enables speech articulation, immunity mediator 86 / 207 86) The most pronounced effect on the oral microflora of a reduction in rate of salivary flow is a: a. Significant decrease in number of oral bacteria b. Shift towards more acidogenic microflora c. shift towards more aerobic microflora d. Significant increase in number of oral bacteria 87 / 207 87) Senile carious lesions are most commonly found exclusively on the following areas of the teeth: a. Occlusal, incisor, facial and lingual embrasures b. Pits and fissures, proximal caries c. Inclined plane of cusps d. Root surfaces of teeth 88 / 207 88) One of the following does contribute to the formation of the upper lip: a. Medial nasal process b. Two maxillary processes and medial nasal process c. First branchial arch d. Lateral nasal process 89 / 207 89) The cap stage occurs between the: a. Eleventh and twelfth week of prenatal development b. Thirteenth and fourteenth week of prenatal development c. Ninth and tenth week of prenatal development d. Sixteenth and seventeenth week of prenatal development 90 / 207 90) All of the following is the ectodermal in origin, except: a. Anterior pituitary gland b. Stellate reticulum c. Enamel spindles d. Epithelial rests of Malassez 91 / 207 91) The region where the inner and outer enamel epithelium meets at the rim of the enamel organ is known as: a. Cervical loop b. Hertwing's root Sheath c. Zone of Flection d. Epithelial Diaphragm 92 / 207 92) The name of the first branchial arch is: a. Hyoid arch b. Maxillary arch c. All are corrected d. Mandibular arch 93 / 207 93) The probable reasons for a high incidence of dental caries in the teenage population relates most directly to: a. Negligence in visiting the dentist b. Frequency of sucrose intake c. Carelessness in oral hygiene habits d. Rapid growth 94 / 207 94) No basal lamina is found between the cells of the: a. Stratum intermedium and inner enamel epithelium b. Inner enamel epithelium and the dental papilla c. Outer enamel epithelium and the dental sac d. Inner layer of Hertwig's root sheath and the dental papilla 95 / 207 95) Advanced bell stage of tooth development refers to: a. Mesenchymal condensation b. Histodifferentiation, morphodifferentiation c. Apposition of dental tissues d. Initiation and Proliferation 96 / 207 96) Deglutition problem can lead to: a. Even death b. All are corrected c. Coughing d. Airway obstruction pneumonia 97 / 207 97) The mesenchymal cells lying adjacent to the inner enamel epithelium: a. Become markedly folded b. Are under the influence of stellate reticulum c. Differentiate into odontoblasts d. Differentiate into ameloblasts 98 / 207 98) The bud stage of tooth development occurs at: a. The beginning of the eighth week b. The beginning of the ninth week c. The beginning of the seventh week d. The beginning of the tenth week 99 / 207 99) The palatal shelves: a. Develop from the lateral nasal processes b. Develop from the maxillary prominences c. From the primary palate d. Develop from the medial nasal processes 100 / 207 100) All the statement below is true about the classification of taste, except: a. The four familiar categories are sweet, salty, sour, and bitter b. A component that can be reliably identified in isolation can be identified in multiple component mixtures c. There has recently been discovered an "umami" receptor on the tongue d. People sometimes identify multiple component solutions as a single component 101 / 207 101) Concerning teratogens and their effect on fetal development: a. Maternal smoking during pregnancy can cause intrauterine growth retardation b. All are corrected c. Moderate consumption of alcohol by the mother during pregnancy can produce fetal alcohol effects d. Drugs, food additives and even caffeine can all serve as teratogens 102 / 207 102) A layer of cells that seems to be essential to enamel formation but do actually secrete the enamel except: a. Vestibular lamina b. Stratum intermedium c. Outer enamel epithelium d. Reduced dental epithelium 103 / 207 103) An oblique facial cleft is the result of: a. Incomplete or complete lack of fusion of the lateral nasal processes and the maxillary swelling b. Abnormal fusion of the two frontonasal processes c. Excessive proliferation of the lateral nasal processes d. Fusion of the maxillary and mandibular swellings unilaterally 104 / 207 104) The number of baby teeth is: a. 20 b. 32 c. 22 d. 23 105 / 207 105) The taste sensations appear to be located from the parts of: a. The mouth containing taste buds b. The mouth containing functioning taste buds that connect to sensory nerves c. The mouth's entire surface d. The mouth containing functioning taste buds 106 / 207 106) Fluorosis is caused by: a. Increase in Fluoride b. Is Inherited c. Normal levels of Fluoride d. Decrease in Fluoride 107 / 207 107) Eruptive phase: a. Accompanied by bleeding of the gingival b. Has only axial occlusal movement c. Eruptive teeth move at different speeds, at different times d. No discomfort or pain 108 / 207 108) The cranial nerve supplies to muscles of mastication is: a. VII (facial) b. V (trigeminal) c. X (vagus) d. III (oculomotor) 109 / 207 109) Concerning cleft lips and cleft palates: a. They can be either unilateral or bilateral b. Cleft lips result from the incomplete (or nonexistent) fusion of the mandibular prominence and the fused medial nasal prominences c. They are not very common d. Cleft palate is always found with a cleft lip 110 / 207 110) Cleft palate may result from all of the following except a. Deficiency in crest derived mesenchyme b. Lack of fusion of the primary with the secondary palate c. Lack of shelf movement d. Reduced epithelial adhesiveness of the palatal shelves 111 / 207 111) The density of taste buds is highest: a. Around age 65 b. Around age 40 c. In the teen years d. At infancy 112 / 207 112) Actual eruptive movements of tooth occur mainly in a: a. Axial direction b. Complex pattern c. Rotational direction d. Horizontal direction 113 / 207 113) Oral foci of Miller’s are seen in: a. Herpes simple b. Syphilis c. Lichen planus d. Dental caries 114 / 207 114) The dental lamina is induced to proliferate into a tooth bud by the: a. Basement membrane b. Ecto-mesenchyme c. Nerve endings d. Oral epithelium 115 / 207 115) The stratum intermedium: a. Lies between outer enamel epithelium and stellate reticulum b. Plays important role in enamel calcification c. Is rich in mucopolysaccharides d. Is a transient structure 116 / 207 116) Branchial arches sharing in tongue development are: a. First and second b. Second and third c. First, third and fourth d. First 117 / 207 117) The bell stage occurs between the: a. Eleventh and twelfth week of prenatal development b. Fifty and sixty weeks of prenatal development c. Thirty and forty weeks of prenatal development d. Twenty and Twenty-first week of prenatal development 118 / 207 118) Odontogenesis of the primary dentition begins between: a. The fifth and sixth week b. The fourth and fifth week c. The seventh and eighth week d. The sixth and seventh week 119 / 207 119) One group of structures is entirely derived from the dental sac: a. Dentin, pulp, cementum b. Cementum, alveolar bone, pulp c. Periodontal ligament, cementum, alveolar bone d. Cementum, enamel, pulp 120 / 207 120) An oblique facial cleft is formed when the: a. Due to the rupture of the buccopharyngeal membrane b. Medial nasal process fails to fuse with the maxillary process c. Maxillary process fails to fuse with the lateral and medial nasal process d. Maxillary process fails to fuse with the mandibular processes 121 / 207 121) Enamel pearls occur in: a. Apical third of molars roots b. Furcation area of premolars c. Furcation area of molars d. Cervical third of molars roots 122 / 207 122) The primary cause of periodontal disease is: a. Food habits b. Bacterial plaque c. Life style d. Systemic disease 123 / 207 123) The embryological origin of the hyoid bone is: a. The second pharyngeal arch b. The first pharyngeal arc c. The first and second pharyngeal arches d. The second and third pharyngeal arches 124 / 207 124) The development of the root begins when: a. The development of the supporting bone begins b. The inner and outer dental epithelium reaching the future CEJ c. The development of the periodontal ligament begins d. The crown is completely formed 125 / 207 125) Primordium for the permanent dentition appears as an extension of dental lamina into the ectomesenchyme: a. Lingual to the developing primary tooth germ b. Distal to the developing primary tooth germ c. Labial to the developing primary tooth germ d. Mesial to the developing primary tooth germ 126 / 207 126) Widely accepted theory of dental caries is: a. Acidogenic theory b. Proteolytic chelation theory c. Proteolytic theory d. Autoimmune theory 127 / 207 127) One of the following is a component of tooth germ: a. Successional lamina b. Dental sac c. Vestibular lamina d. Lateral dental lamina 128 / 207 128) Regarding deglutition: a. Inspiration cessation b. Soft palate moves upward c. Co-ordinated reflex d. Contraction of cricopharyngeal 129 / 207 129) The caries, all are true except: a. Smooth surface caries occurs due to streptococcus mutans b. Fluorides help in reducing caries incidence c. Lactobacillus is the main causative organism in plaque d. Pit and fissure caries can be prevented by using pit and fissure sealants 130 / 207 130) The papillae that is projections on the tongue called: a. Filiform papillae b. Fungiform papillae c. All are corrected d. Circumvallate papillae 131 / 207 131) The maxillary processes: a. Are covered with endoderm b. Are derived from the first pharyngeal arch c. Form the entire upper lip d. Form the primary palate 132 / 207 132) The dietary carbohydrate most likely involved in etiology of dental caries is: a. Sucrose b. Polysaccharide c. Dextran d. Glucose 133 / 207 133) The cell rests of Malassez are derivatives of: a. Cervical ameloblasts b. Epithelial root sheath c. Dental papilla d. Outer enamel epithelium 134 / 207 134) Initiation of caries by Streptococcus mutans is by the production of the: a. Soluble dextran and glycosyl transferase b. Insoluble dextran and glycosyl transferase c. Dextranase and soluble dextran d. All of are corrected 135 / 207 135) All of the following is derived from the enamel organ except: a. Odontoblasts b. Ameloblasts c. Stellate reticulum d. Hertwig's epithelial root sheath 136 / 207 136) All of the following is a part of the tooth germ except: a. Dental lamina b. Enamel organ c. Dental papilla d. Dental follicle 137 / 207 137) Concerning the palate, all of the following are true, except: a. Excessive growth of the soft palate can result in the formation of a soft tissue projection called the uvula that can block the oropharynx b. The posterior parts of the secondary palate do not ossify but extend posteriorly beyond the nasal septum to form the soft palate c. All are corrected d. Bone gradually develops in the primary palate which lodges the incisor teeth in adults 138 / 207 138) One of the following is important for the development of teeth is: a. Vitamin B12 b. Calcium c. Iron d. Vitamin B6 139 / 207 139) Facial swellings refer to: a. All are corrected b. The two mandibular prominences, the two maxillary prominences and the frontonasal prominence c. The five prominences that are apparent following proliferation and migration of neural crest cells d. The five facial primordia which form the eyes, nose, mouth and jaw 140 / 207 140) The number of permanent teeth is: a. 32 b. 36 c. 30 d. 20 141 / 207 141) All of the following is part of the tooth germ except: a. Enamel organ b. Dental lamina c. Dental papilla d. Dental follicle 142 / 207 142) Concrescence is: a. An extra root or accessory roots in a formed tooth b. A union of root structure of two or more teeth through cementum only c. A spherical projection on the cemental root surface d. Distorted root or roots in a formed tooth 143 / 207 143) The dental sac plays an important role in the formation of all of the following except: a. Alveolar bone proper b. Periodontal ligament c. Dentin of the root d. Cementum 144 / 207 144) One of the following causes the discolorations of teeth is: a. Flagyl b. Tetracycline c. Gentamycin d. Penicillin 145 / 207 145) A unilateral cleft lip is formed when: a. One lateral nasal process fails to fuse with the maxillary process b. The palatal shelves remain in a vertical position c. One maxillary process fails to fuse with the medial nasal process d. The bucco-nasal membrane ruptures 146 / 207 146) The major component of dental plaque is: a. Desquamated epithelial cells b. Salivary contents c. Materia alba, lactic acid d. Microorganism 147 / 207 147) All of the following is a functional activity of the enamel organ, except: a. Secretion of enamel matrix b. Inducing the differentiation of Odontoblasts c. Maturation of enamel d. Formation of cementum 148 / 207 148) The extrinsic muscles of the tongue: a. Develop from occipital myotomes b. Develop from the second branchial arch c. Develop from tuberculum impar d. Develop from the maxillary process 149 / 207 149) The inferior parathyroid gland originates from: a. Third pharyngeal pouch b. Fourth pharyngeal pouch c. First pharyngeal cleft d. First pharyngeal pouch 150 / 207 150) The following are all derived from the stomodeal ectoderm such as: a. Salivary glands, anterior pituitary gland and enamel organs b. Cementum, anterior pituitary gland and stratum intermedium c. Dental lamina, dental papilla and dental sac d. Enamel dentin and major salivary glands 151 / 207 151) The little bumps can see on someone’s tongue are: a. Taste buds b. Papillae c. Gustatory pimples d. Latin papilla 152 / 207 152) Miller put forth the acidogenic theory of dental caries in the year: a. 1920 b. 1980 c. 1924 d. 1890 153 / 207 153) Chewing sequence could be divided into: a. Preparatory series b. Reduction series c. All are corrected d. Pre-swallow series 154 / 207 154) The enamel organ: a. Is a completely epithelial structure b. Develops from cells in the dental follicle c. Is a completely connective tissue structure d. Is highly vascular, as ameloblasts require an enriched environment 155 / 207 155) The origin of enamel is: a. Ectomesenchyme b. Mesoderm c. Endoderm d. Ectoderm 156 / 207 156) The following induces the dental papilla cells to be differentiated into odontoblasts: a. Outer enamel epithelium b. Inner enamel epithelium c. Reduced enamel epithelium d. Stratum intermedium 157 / 207 157) The nerve of the third branchial arch is: a. The glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve b. The facial (VII) nerve c. The superior laryngeal nerves d. Two branches of the vagus (X) nerve 158 / 207 158) The following embryonic structures contribute to the formation of lower lip: a. Medial and lateral nasal processes b. Maxillary and medial nasal processes c. Maxillary process d. Two mandibular processes 159 / 207 159) Function of gingival cervicular fluid is: a. Protective flow towards oral cavity washes out potentially harmful cells and molecules b. Antibacterial immunoglobulins, Rather response to inflamation c. All are corrected d. Calcium assists pellicle and plaque fromation but may contribute to calculus formation 160 / 207 160) The tooth germ is composed of: a. Dental papilla, dental sac, enamel organ b. Dental papilla, dental lamina, dental organ c. Dental organ, dental follicle, dental lamina d. Dental follicle, dental lamina, vestibular lamina 161 / 207 161) One of the following is associated with an erupted tooth: a. Stratum intermedium b. Epithelial rests of Malassez c. Outer Enamel epithelium d. Cervical loop 162 / 207 162) The extrinsic muscles of the tongue are supplied by: a. Facial nerve b. Trigeminal nerve c. Lingual nerve d. Hypoglossal nerve 163 / 207 163) Chemico-parasitic theory of dental caries is proposed by: a. Schwartz b. GV Black c. Gottlieb d. Miller 164 / 207 164) Median rhomboid glossitis is: a. Red and rhomboidal smooth zone of the tongue b. Caused by persistence of tuberculum impar c. Found in midline in front of the foramen cecum d. All are corrected 165 / 207 165) Pharyngeal mucosa is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerves because it develops from the: a. First pharyngeal arch b. Fourth pharyngeal arch c. Second pharyngeal arch d. Third pharyngeal arch 166 / 207 166) In a developing tooth, if Hertwig’s sheath and the epithelial diaphragm were failed to form, the resulting tooth would exhibit: a. Malformed or fused roots b. No radicular dentin c. Acellular, but no cellular, cementum d. Defective enamel in the cervical region 167 / 207 167) Turbid dentin in carious tooth is all except: a. Zone which cannot be remineralizer b. Zone that need not be removed before restoration c. Zone in which collagen is irreversibly denatured d. Zone of bacterial invasion 168 / 207 168) Component of mastication are: a. Teeth, nasal cavity, lip, tongue, palate b. All are corrected c. Teeth, cheek, lip, tongue, palate, pharynx d. Teeth, cheek, lip, tongue, palate 169 / 207 169) The following Which contain blood vessels is: a. Cartilage b. Enamel c. Dental sac d. Dental lamina 170 / 207 170) One of the following Which of induces the dental papilla cells to be differentiated into odontoblasts is: a. Outer enamel epithelium b. Inner enamel epithelium c. Reduced enamel epithelium d. Stratum intermedium 171 / 207 171) The secretions of salivary glands are: a. Exocrine and merocrine b. Exocrine and apocrine c. Endocrine and merocrine d. Exocrine and holocrine 172 / 207 172) During tooth eruption into the oral cavity, what happens to the epithelial covering of the enamel: a. It units with the oral epithelium and becomes primary cuticle b. It units with the oral epithelium and then degenerates c. It remains as the primary cuticle d. It is replaced by oral epithelium and then degenerates 173 / 207 173) All of the following statements about the eruption of a permanent tooth and the exfoliation of its predecessor are true, except: a. Resorption of deciduous roots is an intermittent process b. Eruptive movements of the permanent tooth may not be solely responsible for deciduous root resorption c. Earliest resorption of deciduous roots is on root surface of the permanent tooth d. Prior to eruption, the crown permanent tooth is completely formed 174 / 207 174) The vestibular lamina gives rise to: a. The alveololingual sulcus b. The alveologingival sulcus c. The alveolodental sulcus d. The alveolobuccal sulcus 175 / 207 175) The number of roots that are formed is determined by the: a. Number of Epithelial root sheaths developed by the enamel organ b. Number of Epithelial root sheaths developed by the dental sac c. Thickness of the cervical loop d. Number of medial in growths at the epithelial diaphragm 176 / 207 176) Taste Buds are located: a. Epiglottis of the larynx, pharynx, b. All are corrected