Oral Biology Test 0% 6 votes, 4.3 avg 753 You will have 60 minutes to complete all the questions. After the timer reaches 60 minutes, the exam will end and be saved automatically. Good luck! *Fingers crossed* The timer has been reached. The exam has now been terminated and saved. Oral Biology Test 1 / 60 The occipital somite’s myotomes give rise to: a. Muscles of cheek b. Muscles of the lip c. Muscles of mastication d. Muscles of the tongue 2 / 60 All of the following is true of parotid glands, except: a. Stenson's duct opens in the cheek opposite maxillary second molar b. Long, branching intercalated ducts are present c. Serous demilunes cap mucous secretory units d. Predominantly serous gland 3 / 60 Branchial arches sharing in tongue development are: a. First, third and fourth b. First c. Second and third d. First and second 4 / 60 The bud stage of tooth development occurs at: a. The beginning of the eighth week b. The beginning of the seventh week c. The beginning of the tenth week d. The beginning of the ninth week 5 / 60 Histological changes occurring during the eruptive phase: a. Formation of the attachment apparatus only b. Root formation only c. All are corrected d. Dento-gingival junction appearance only 6 / 60 The development of secondary palate begins from: a. 15-16 WIU b. 4-5 WIU c. 6-9 WIU d. 3-4 WIU 7 / 60 Active eruption of the tooth: a. Begins as soon as the roots have begun to develop b. Begins as the occlusal tip starts moving towards the occlusal plane c. Begins when the apical cementum is deposited on the roots of the tooth d. Continues until exposure of the cementum has occurred 8 / 60 Median rhomboid glossitis is: a. All are corrected b. Found in midline in front of the foramen cecum c. Caused by persistence of tuberculum impar d. Red and rhomboidal smooth zone of the tongue 9 / 60 One of the following Which of induces the dental papilla cells to be differentiated into odontoblasts is: a. Stratum intermedium b. Inner enamel epithelium c. Reduced enamel epithelium d. Outer enamel epithelium 10 / 60 The palate is derived from three primordia: a. Lateral nasal process b. Fronto- nasal process c. 3rd branchial arch d. An median palatine process and a pair of lateral palatine processes 11 / 60 The Hertwig epithelial root sheath of disintegrates: a. After cementum formation b. Before odontoblastic differentiation c. After odontoblastic differentiation and dentin matrix deposition d. After odontoblastic differentiation and before dentin matrix formation 12 / 60 Secondary palate is: 1st branchial arch a. 3rd branchial arch b. Characterized by the formation of two palatal shelves on the maxillary prominences c. 2nd branchial arch d. 1st branchial arch 13 / 60 The following organisms is found in deep carious lesions rather than in incipient lesions is: a. Veillonella b. Streptococci c. Lactobacilli d. Bacteroides 14 / 60 In patient with reduced salivary flow the carious incidence is: a. Unaffected b. All of are corrected c. More than the patient with normal salivary flow d. Less than the patient with normal salivary flow 15 / 60 Odontogenesis of the primary dentition begins between: a. The sixth and seventh week b. The seventh and eighth week c. The fifth and sixth week d. The fourth and fifth week 16 / 60 All of the structure is the tooth crown except: a. Cementum b. Enamel c. Pulp d. Dentine 17 / 60 The development of the root begins when: a. The crown is completely formed b. The development of the supporting bone begins c. The development of the periodontal ligament begins d. The inner and outer dental epithelium reaching the future CEJ 18 / 60 The following embryonic structures contribute to the formation of lower lip: a. Medial and lateral nasal processes b. Two mandibular processes c. Maxillary and medial nasal processes d. Maxillary process 19 / 60 Palatal processes of the maxilla are derived from: a. Mandibular processes b. Horizontal process of the maxillary prominences c. Medial nasal process d. Copula of His 20 / 60 Function of gingival cervicular fluid is: a. Antibacterial immunoglobulins, Rather response to inflamation b. Protective flow towards oral cavity washes out potentially harmful cells and molecules c. All are corrected d. Calcium assists pellicle and plaque fromation but may contribute to calculus formation 21 / 60 In humans, which branchial arch rudimentary is: a. 4th b. 5th c. 2nd d. 6th 22 / 60 All of the following is derived from the enamel organ except: a. Stellate reticulum b. Hertwig's epithelial root sheath c. Ameloblasts d. Odontoblasts 23 / 60 Neural crest cells are a temporary group of cells unique to vertebrates that arise from the embryonic ectoderm cell layer, and in turn give rise to A diverse cell lineage including: a. Craniofacial cartilage and bone, smooth muscle, peripheral and enteric neurons b. Enamel, dentine and bone c. Bone, dentine and cartilage d. Sensory cells, enamel and dentine 24 / 60 Pure mucous salivary gland is: a. Glossopalatine gland b. Major sublingual glands c. Submandibular gland d. Parotid gland 25 / 60 The cell rests of Malassez are derivatives of: a. Cervical ameloblasts b. Outer enamel epithelium c. Epithelial root sheath d. Dental papilla 26 / 60 Deglutition problem can lead to: a. Even death b. Coughing c. Airway obstruction pneumonia d. All are corrected 27 / 60 Streptococcus mutants is involved in dental caries initiation Other bacteria also involved is: a. S sarcinus b. S salivary c. S sanguis d. S macae 28 / 60 The number of permanent teeth is: a. 20 b. 32 c. 36 d. 30 29 / 60 Streptococcus mutans is considered to be a principal etiologic agent of caries because it produces acid and it: a. Derives energy from enamel constituents b. Lives symbiotically with lactobacillus c. Forms a gelatinous matrix d. Metabolizes substrate from saliva 30 / 60 The origin of enamel is: a. Ectoderm b. Endoderm c. Ectomesenchyme d. Mesoderm 31 / 60 Most of the hard palate and all of the soft palate from the: a. Primary palate b. Assessor palate c. All are corrected d. Secondary palate 32 / 60 The dental sac is: a. All are corrected b. The condensation of the ectomesenchymal cells surrounding dental papilla c. The condensation of the ectomesenchymal cells surrounding the enamel organ and dental papilla d. The condensation of the ectomesenchymal cells surrounding Enamel organ 33 / 60 A unilateral cleft lip is formed when: a. The palatal shelves remain in a vertical position b. One maxillary process fails to fuse with the medial nasal process c. The bucco-nasal membrane ruptures d. One lateral nasal process fails to fuse with the maxillary process 34 / 60 Calcified tissues of the tooth are derived from: a. Ectoderm only b. Mesoderm only c. Ectoderm and Mesoderm d. Endoderm only 35 / 60 Bacteria responsible for initiation of caries is: a. Actinomycosis b. Lactobacillus c. Streptococcus viridian d. Streptococcus mutants 36 / 60 The inferior parathyroid gland originates from: a. First pharyngeal pouch b. Third pharyngeal pouch c. First pharyngeal cleft d. Fourth pharyngeal pouch 37 / 60 Eruptive phase: a. No discomfort or pain b. Eruptive teeth move at different speeds, at different times c. Accompanied by bleeding of the gingival d. Has only axial occlusal movement 38 / 60 The most likely factor responsible for tooth eruption is: a. Vascular pressure b. The developing periodontal ligament c. The growing root d. Bone growth 39 / 60 All of the following statements about the eruption of a permanent tooth and the exfoliation of its predecessor are true, except: a. Prior to eruption, the crown permanent tooth is completely formed b. Earliest resorption of deciduous roots is on root surface of the permanent tooth c. Resorption of deciduous roots is an intermittent process d. Eruptive movements of the permanent tooth may not be solely responsible for deciduous root resorption 40 / 60 The number of roots that are formed is determined by the: a. Number of medial in growths at the epithelial diaphragm b. Thickness of the cervical loop c. Number of Epithelial root sheaths developed by the dental sac d. Number of Epithelial root sheaths developed by the enamel organ 41 / 60 Stem cell hierarchy from top to bottom? a. Totipotent, pluripotent, unipotent, multipotent b. Totipotent, multipotent, pluripotent, unipotent c. Totipotent, pluripotent, multipotent, unipotent d. Unipotent, multipotent, pluripotent, totipotent e. Unipotent, pluripotent, multipotent, totipotent 42 / 60 There are two major factors influence repair and regeneration? a. Hormonal and mobility b. Nutrition and infection c. Metabolic and would characteristic like size and location d. Systemic and local factors 43 / 60 Periodontium which includes? a. Gingival b. Periodontal ligament c. Cementum d. All of above e. Alveolar bone 44 / 60 A specific sequence of DNA that a transcription factor binds to? a. Response element b. Transcription c. Transcription factor d. Transcriptional regulation e. Gene expression 45 / 60 Growth factor responsible for repair and regeneration: EGF, Epithermal growth factor? a. Growth and new generation of keratinocyte b. Tissue repair, cell growth, and collagen products. c. Promotion of epithelial cell growth, angiogenesis, and promotion of wound healing d. Growth and new generation of endovascular epithelial cells e. Cell growth, new generation and repair of blood vessel, and collagen product 46 / 60 Event during or following protein translation ? a. Proteolysis and post-translatoinal modification b. Post-translational modification and protein folding c. Proteolysis and modification d. Proteolysis and protein folding 47 / 60 Cytokines are a broad and loose category of long big proteins (~5–20 kDa) that are important in cell signalling.? a. False b. True 48 / 60 Mesenchymal stem cells can be extract from many types of tissue, but the most commence one is bone marrow.? a. True b. False 49 / 60 Transcription factor is a protein that controls the rate of transcription of genetic information from messenger RNA to DNA, by binding to a specific ribosomes.? a. False b. True 50 / 60 Controlling the rate of gene transcription for example by helping or hindering RNA polymerase binding to DNA? a. Transcription b. Transcriptional regulation c. Gene expression d. Transcription factor e. Response element 51 / 60 Cells responsible for repair and regeneration consist of? a. All of above b. Macrophages c. Endothelial cells and Platelets d. Mesenchymal cells and Parenchymal cells of the injury organs e. Platelets 52 / 60 One strategy to accomplish this goal is nuclear reprogramming, a technique that involves experimentally inducing a stable change in the nucleus of a mature cell that can then be maintained and replicated as the cell divides through mitosis. ? a. True b. False 53 / 60 In transcription an mRNA chain is generated, with both strands of the DNA double helix in the genome as a template.? a. True b. False 54 / 60 Growth factor responsible for repair and regeneration: FGF, fibroblast growth factor.? a. Tissue repair, cell growth, and collagen products. b. Promotion of epithelial cell growth, angiogenesis, and promotion of wound healing c. Growth and new generation of keratinocyte d. Growth and new generation of endovascular epithelial cells e. Cell growth, new generation and repair of blood vessel, and collagen product 55 / 60 Retroviruses used to deliver the four transcription factors in the earliest studies is safe to generating iPSCs.? a. True b. False 56 / 60 Chromatin immunoprecipitation (ChIP) is a type of immunoprecipitation experimental technique used to investigate the interaction between? a. Proteins and DNA in the cell b. Proteins and DNA outside the cell c. DNA and RNA d. Proteins and RNA e. RNA and DNA 57 / 60 Yamanaka’s factors were used to generating iPSc in 1st generation because:? a. They are ease to use. b. There is no better way. c. All are corrects. d. They were reported to able to express gene that like embryonic stem cells. 58 / 60 What are the 4 steps of responses of mucosa to damage? a. Proliferation, Inflammatory response, Hemostasis, and Wound contraction b. Wound contraction, Hemostasis, Inflammatory response, and Proliferation c. Hemostasis, Inflammatory response, Proliferation, and Wound contraction d. Inflammatory response, Hemostasis, Proliferation, and Wound contraction 59 / 60 Transcription factors sometime is called ? a. Sequence-specific tRNA-binding factors b. Sequence-specific mRNA-binding factors c. Sequence-specific RNA-binding factors d. Sequence-specific DNA-binding factors 60 / 60 What are the criteria for achieving to generate iPSc? a. A stable change in the nucleus of a mature cell b. An unstable change in the nucleus of a mature cells but can be maintained and replicated through cell division, mitosis. c. ell be maintained and replicated d. Cell able to maintain and replication their stable change in cellular nucleus when their undergo mitosis. e. Cell can divides through mitosis Your score isThe average score is 80% Facebook 0% Restart quiz Any comments? Send feedback