Parasitologie Test 0% 0 votes, 0 avg 0 You will have 60 minutes to complete all the questions. After the timer reaches 60 minutes, the exam will end and be saved automatically. Good luck! *Fingers crossed* The timer has been reached. The exam has now been terminated and saved. Parasitologie Test 1 / 60 Long-term complication of Opisthorchis viverrini infection: a. Bile duct cancer b. Myocarditis c. Kidney stones d. Appendicitis 2 / 60 Trichinella larvae primarily encyst in: a. Muscle b. Intestine c. Liver d. Brain 3 / 60 Which parasite shows no eggs in stool , but larvae only ? a. Ascaris lumbricoides b. Hookworm c. Trichuris trichiura d. Strongyloides stercoralis 4 / 60 Staining technique of choice for Cystoisospora is: a. Trichrome b. Giemsa c. Acid-fast d. India ink 5 / 60 Zoonosis refers to a disease that is: a. Only in animals b. Only in humans c. Found in water d. Transmitted from animals to humans 6 / 60 The egg of Hymenolepis diminuta differs from H. nana by: a. Being larger b. Lacking polar filaments c. Being operculated d. Having polar filaments 7 / 60 The intermediate host of Hymenolepis nana is: a. None (direct life cycle. b. Cow c. Pig d. Dog 8 / 60 Opisthorchis and Clonorchis infections are associated with: a. Pancreatitis b. Lung cancer c. Colon cancer d. Cholangiocarcinoma 9 / 60 The schizont stage of Plasmodium contains: a. Two nuclei b. Multiple merozoites c. One nucleus d. No nuclei 10 / 60 Which stage of Plasmodium is transmitted to humans by the mosquito? a. Trophozoite b. Gametocyte c. Merozoite d. Sporozoite 11 / 60 The intermediate host of Fasciola hepatica is: a. Snail b. Mosquito c. Cow d. Freshwater fish 12 / 60 Fasciola hepatica infection can be treated with: a. Albendazole b. Ivermectin c. Triclabendazole d. Niclosamide 13 / 60 Plasmodium vivax causes fever every: a. 48 hours b. 36 hours c. 72 hours d. 24 hours 14 / 60 Taenia solium infection occurs via ingestion of: a. Mosquito bite b. Cysticerci in undercooked pork c. Embryonated egg in water d. Larvae in soil 15 / 60 Paragonimus westermani is known as the: a. Blood fluke b. Intestinal fluke c. Liver fluke d. Lung fluke 16 / 60 The development of disease in a host due to parasite infection is called: a. Infestation b. Infection c. Zoonosis d. Pathogenesis 17 / 60 The diagnostic stage of Enterobius vermicularis is found using: a. Blood smear b. Sputum smear c. Tape test d. Fecal flotation 18 / 60 Humans acquire Fasciola hepatica infection through ingestion of: a. Raw aquatic plants like watercress b. Raw fish c. Undercooked beef d. Contaminated water 19 / 60 Which parasite causes “creeping eruption” in humans? a. Ascaris b. Enterobius vermicularis c. Strongyloides stercoralis d. Hookworm 20 / 60 The ability of a parasite to cause disease is called: a. Pathogenicity b. Immunity c. Virulence d. Resistance 21 / 60 The ability of a parasite to be transmitted from one host to another is known as: a. Virulence b. Resistance c. Infectivity d. Pathogenicity 22 / 60 Diphyllobothrium latum is acquired by eating: a. Raw or undercooked freshwater fish b. Infected vegetables c. Undercooked pork d. Contaminated water 23 / 60 Humans get Dipylidium caninum from: a. Drinking dog saliva b. Inhalation c. Eating raw meat d. Ingesting infected fleas 24 / 60 The diagnostic stage of Plasmodium in human blood is: a. Oocyst b. Sporozoite c. Gametocyte d. Trophozoite 25 / 60 Human infection with H. diminuta is: a. Impossible b. Asymptomatic only c. Rare d. Common 26 / 60 The typical location of Strongyloides autoinfection is in: a. Liver b. Intestine and perianal region c. Skin d. Lungs 27 / 60 First-line treatment for strongyloidiasis: a. Doxycycline b. Ivermectin c. Niclosamide d. Metronidazole 28 / 60 Pathogenesis caused by Echinococcus granulosus involves: a. Intestinal blockage b. Skin ulcers c. Brain hemorrhage d. Liver cysts 29 / 60 The term “incubation period” means: a. Time parasite remains viable b. Time to complete parasite’s life cycle c. Time between infection and symptom onset d. Time needed to hatch eggs 30 / 60 Parasites that live on the surface of the host are called: a. Endoparasites b. Ectoparasites c. Obligate parasites d. Facultative parasites 31 / 60 Which drug is commonly used to treat Ascaris lumbricoides infection? a. Ivermectin b. Praziquantel c. Chloroquine d. Albendazole 32 / 60 The intermediate host of Schistosoma is: a. Cow b. Snail c. Fish d. Mosquito 33 / 60 Thick blood smear is primarily used to: a. Detect presence of parasites b. Visualize RBC morphology c. Detect gametocytes only d. Differentiate species 34 / 60 Diagnosis of Dipylidium involves: a. Serology b. Skin test c. Stool microscopy showing egg packets d. CT scan 35 / 60 Which is the most common intestinal protozoan in the world? a. E. histolytica b. Giardia lamblia c. Balantidium coli d. T. vaginalis 36 / 60 The hallmark shape of Babesia in red blood cells is: a. Crescent b. Ring c. Tetrad (Maltese cross. d. Crescent and ring 37 / 60 The study of insect vectors is known as: a. Entomology b. Helminthology c. Protozoology d. Parasitism 38 / 60 The term “infectivity” refers to: a. Mode of reproduction b. Parasite's ability to cause death c. Ability to spread within a host d. Ability to invade and establish infection 39 / 60 What structure helps T. vaginalis move? a. Pseudopodia b. Cilia c. Flagella d. Fimbriae 40 / 60 Transmission of Dracunculus medinensis occurs via: a. Eating raw pork b. Drinking water with infected copepods c. Sexual contact d. Mosquito bite 41 / 60 The diagnostic stage of Cyclospora in stool is: a. Bradyzoite b. Trophozoite c. Sporulated oocyst d. Tachyzoite 42 / 60 Which protozoa has flagella but no cyst form? a. E. histolytica b. E. coli c. T. vaginalis d. G. lamblia 43 / 60 Opisthorchis and Clonorchis infections are associated with: a. Pancreatitis b. Colon cancer c. Lung cancer d. Cholangiocarcinoma 44 / 60 Prevention of amoebiasis includes: a. Use of mosquito nets b. Boiling or filtering drinking water c. Vaccination d. Avoiding raw meat 45 / 60 The antennae of male mosquitoes are: a. Plumose (feathery. b. Short and bare c. Absent d. Thin and segmented 46 / 60 What is the vector for Wuchereria bancrofti? a. Tsetse fly b. Blackfly c. Mosquito d. Sandfly 47 / 60 Parasites with direct life cycles: a. Do not require intermediate host b. Always cause disease c. Transmit via vectors d. Require intermediate host 48 / 60 Which drug is preferred for treating Strongyloides infection? a. Metronidazole b. Metronidazole c. Albendazole d. Praziquantel e. Ivermectin 49 / 60 The term “host specificity” refers to: a. Location in the host b. Preference for certain hosts c. Number of eggs produced d. Duration of infection 50 / 60 Diagnosis of Balantidium coli is based on: a. Finding trophozoites or cysts in stool b. Biopsy only c. PCR d. Serology 51 / 60 The diagnosis of acute Toxoplasma infection can be done by: a. Blood culture b. Stool exam c. Serology for IgM antibodies d. Liver biopsy 52 / 60 Which drug is commonly used to treat Ascaris and Trichuris infections? a. Metronidazole b. Praziquantel c. Niclosamide d. Mebendazole 53 / 60 Which organ is most commonly targeted by parasites? a. Bones b. Liver c. Brain d. Intestines 54 / 60 Hypnozoites are dormant stages found in: a. P. vivax and P. ovale b. P. falciparum and P. malariae c. All Plasmodium species d. P. knowlesi and P. malariae 55 / 60 Which of the following parasites may be found in zoonotic transmission via undercooked meat? a. Taenia solium b. Entamoeba histolytica c. Trichomonas vaginalis d. Giardia lamblia 56 / 60 The site of egg deposition by Schistosoma haematobium is: a. Urinary bladder b. Lungs c. Intestine d. Brain 57 / 60 Which species causes cysticercosis in humans? a. Dipylidium caninum b. Taenia solium c. Taenia saginata d. Hymenolepis nana 58 / 60 A facultative parasite: a. Can live freely or as a parasite b. Is always intracellular c. Requires a host to survive d. Is always fatal to host 59 / 60 Parasites with direct life cycles: a. Do not require intermediate host b. Always cause disease c. Transmit via vectors d. Require intermediate host 60 / 60 Which protozoan uses a ventral sucking disc for attachment? a. G. lamblia b. Naegleria fowleri c. T. vaginalis d. E. histolytica Your score isThe average score is 0% Facebook 0% Restart quiz Any comments? Send feedback