Parasitologie Test 0% 0 votes, 0 avg 0 You will have 60 minutes to complete all the questions. After the timer reaches 60 minutes, the exam will end and be saved automatically. Good luck! *Fingers crossed* The timer has been reached. The exam has now been terminated and saved. Parasitologie Test 1 / 60 A common complication of Taenia solium infection is: a. Pneumonia b. Neurocysticercosis c. Gallstones d. Appendicitis 2 / 60 The lung fluke is: a. Paragonimus westermani b. Fasciola hepatica c. Schistosoma mansoni d. Clonorchis sinensis 3 / 60 The typical location of Strongyloides autoinfection is in: a. Skin b. Intestine and perianal region c. Lungs d. Liver 4 / 60 The egg of H. nana show: a. Polar filaments b. Operculum c. Thick shell with lateral spine d. Bipolar plugs 5 / 60 Drug of choice for invasive amoebiasis: a. Ciprofloxacin b. Albendazole c. Praziquantel d. Metronidazole 6 / 60 Humans act as the definitive host for which Sarcocystis species? a. S. falcatula b. S. hominis c. S. cruzi d. S. neurona 7 / 60 Cyst stage is absent in which protozoan? a. Trichomonas vaginalis b. Giardia lamblia c. E. histolytica d. Entamoeba coli 8 / 60 The site most commonly affected in extraintestinal amoebiasis is: a. Lungs b. Liver c. Brain d. Heart 9 / 60 Which drug is commonly used to treat Ascaris lumbricoides infection? a. Chloroquine b. Praziquantel c. Ivermectin d. Albendazole 10 / 60 Which drug is preferred for treating Strongyloides infection? a. Praziquantel b. Albendazole c. Ivermectin d. Metronidazole e. Metronidazole 11 / 60 A key diagnostic feature of Taenia eggs is: a. Polar filaments b. Lateral spine c. Hexacanth embryo d. Operculum 12 / 60 The adult form of Opisthorchis viverrini lives in the: a. Intestinal lumen b. Urinary bladder c. Lymph nodes d. Bile ducts 13 / 60 Which term describes a disease caused by parasites? a. Zoonosis b. Parasitic infection c. Mycosis d. Parasitiasis 14 / 60 Which mosquito is responsible for transmitting Japanese encephalitis? a. Aedes b. Anopheles c. Culex d. Mansonia 15 / 60 The larvae of Anisakis primarily attach to: a. Brain b. Liver c. Intestinal mucosa d. Skin 16 / 60 The site of egg deposition by Schistosoma haematobium is: a. Lungs b. Urinary bladder c. Brain d. Intestine 17 / 60 Parasites that require two or more hosts to complete their life cycle are: a. Unicellular b. Facultative c. Digenetic d. Monogenetic 18 / 60 T. vaginalis moves by: a. Pseudopodia b. Flagella c. Cilia d. Gliding 19 / 60 Infection by Schistosoma occurs through: a. Insect bite b. Skin penetration by cercariae c. Fecal-oral route d. Ingestion of cysts 20 / 60 Which of the following is a mechanism used by parasites to evade host immunity? a. Cytokine production b. Phagocytosis c. Sporogony d. Antigenic variation 21 / 60 Which characteristic distinguishes Aedes from Anopheles and Culex? a. Striped legs b. Lays eggs in water c. Long antennae d. Night-biting habit 22 / 60 Plasmodium ovale and vivax cause what kind of red cell enlargement? a. Hemolysis b. Shrinkage c. Enlargement d. No change 23 / 60 Which of the following may be seen in giardiasis? a. Malabsorption of fats b. Megaloblastic anemia c. Hematuria d. Ulceration of large intestine 24 / 60 What does perianal pruritus most strongly suggest? a. Trichinella spiralis b. Enterobius vermicularis c. Hookworm d. Ascaris lumbricoides 25 / 60 Diagnosis of Balantidium coli is based on: a. Finding trophozoites or cysts in stool b. PCR c. Serology d. Biopsy only 26 / 60 Parasites with direct life cycles: a. Require intermediate host b. Always cause disease c. Do not require intermediate host d. Transmit via vectors 27 / 60 Human infection with H. diminuta is: a. Rare b. Common c. Impossible d. Asymptomatic only 28 / 60 Primary transmission of Clonorchis sinensis is through: a. Skin penetration b. Eating raw aquatic plants c. Eating undercooked freshwater fish d. Inhalation 29 / 60 Which mosquito genus lays eggs with lateral floats? a. Aedes b. Culex c. Toxorhynchites d. Anopheles 30 / 60 A distinguishing feature of Taenia saginata is: a. Scolex with hooks b. Scolex without hooks c. Proglottids with 7–13 uterine branches d. Causes cysticercosis 31 / 60 Main symptom of heavy F. buski infection: a. Muscle pain b. Severe intestinal obstruction c. Bloody urine d. Jaundice 32 / 60 Which parasite causes “creeping eruption” in humans? a. Hookworm b. Strongyloides stercoralis c. Enterobius vermicularis d. Ascaris 33 / 60 Which form of Plasmodium is injected into humans by the Anopheles mosquito? a. Schizont b. Trophozoite c. Merozoite d. Sporozoite 34 / 60 Which of the following parasites may be found in zoonotic transmission via undercooked meat? a. Taenia solium b. Trichomonas vaginalis c. Giardia lamblia d. Entamoeba histolytica 35 / 60 Main habitat of Balantidium in the body: a. Colon b. Blood c. Small intestine d. Liver 36 / 60 Which term refers to the number of parasites in a host? a. Virulence b. Prevalence c. Intensity d. Incidence 37 / 60 What is the definitive host of Taenia solium ? a. Pig b. Human c. Dog d. Cow 38 / 60 Which host harbors the sexual stage of a parasite? a. Reservoir host b. Intermediate host c. Definitive host d. Paratenic host 39 / 60 Dracunculus medinensis transmission occurs via: a. Inhalation b. Undercooked meat c. Drinking water containing infected copepods d. Mosquito bite 40 / 60 Transmission of Dracunculus medinensis occurs via: a. Mosquito bite b. Drinking water with infected copepods c. Sexual contact d. Eating raw pork 41 / 60 Which parasite causes “creeping eruption” in humans? a. Enterobius vermicularis b. Ascaris c. Strongyloides stercoralis d. Hookworm 42 / 60 The development of disease in a host due to parasite infection is called: a. Pathogenesis b. Infection c. Zoonosis d. Infestation 43 / 60 Opisthorchis and Clonorchis infections are associated with: a. Cholangiocarcinoma b. Lung cancer c. Pancreatitis d. Colon cancer 44 / 60 Which tapeworm egg has an operculum? a. Diphyllobothrium latum b. H. nana c. Taenia solium d. E. granulosus 45 / 60 Trophozoite of Entamoeba histolytica moves using: a. Fimbriae b. Flagella c. Cilia d. Pseudopodia 46 / 60 The diagnosis of acute Toxoplasma infection can be done by: a. Serology for IgM antibodies b. Blood culture c. Stool exam d. Liver biopsy 47 / 60 Diagnostic method for paragonimiasis: a. Sputum microscopy b. CT scan c. Urine culture d. Biopsy 48 / 60 Ancylostoma duodenale causes anemia due to: a. Liver damage b. Intestinal blood loss c. Increased RBC production d. Iron sequestration 49 / 60 Which protozoan exists only in trophozoite form? a. E. histolytica b. G. lamblia c. T. cruzi d. T. vaginalis 50 / 60 Balantidium coli is the only: a. Apicomplexan with spores b. Flagellate infecting intestine c. Protozoa with pseudopodia d. Ciliate protozoan infecting humans 51 / 60 Which stage in the mosquito life cycle is responsible for disease transmission? a. Pupa b. Adult male c. Larva d. Adult female 52 / 60 Trichinella larvae primarily encyst in: a. Liver b. Brain c. Intestine d. Muscle 53 / 60 Hookworm larvae infect humans via: a. Fecal-oral route b. Skin penetration c. Ingestion d. Insect bite 54 / 60 The study of protozoa is called: a. Protozoology b. Mycology c. Helminthology d. Entomology 55 / 60 Which term describes a parasite normally found in animals but infects humans accidentally? a. Opportunistic parasite b. Zoonotic parasite c. Commensal parasite d. Obligate parasite 56 / 60 A parasite that temporarily attaches to a host for feeding is: a. Intermittent parasite b. Facultative parasite c. Pseudoparasite d. Obligate parasite 57 / 60 Toxoplasma gondii oocysts are shed by: a. Dogs b. Cats c. Cattle d. Humans 58 / 60 Which parasite is known to cause brain abscess in humans via zoonotic transmission? a. Toxoplasma gondii b. Balantidium coli c. Trichuris trichiura d. Giardia lamblia 59 / 60 Cryptosporidium multiplies in the host through: a. Binary fission b. Budding c. Conjugation d. Schizogony 60 / 60 What is the vector for Wuchereria bancrofti? a. Blackfly b. Sandfly c. Mosquito d. Tsetse fly Your score isThe average score is 0% Facebook 0% Restart quiz Any comments? Send feedback