Pharmacologie Preparation (Pr.Ast. Duong Dararith)

/97

1 / 97

1) Owing to Kd = dissociation constant; Ro = Total receptor. Formulate law mass action indicating the interaction between Drug – Receptor (D – R)

a. D-R = ([R0] x [D]) / ([D] + Kd)

b. D-R = ([R0] x [D]) + ([D] + Kd)

c. D-R = ([R0] x [D]) – ([D] + Kd)

d. D-R = ([R0] + [D]) / ([D] x Kd)

e. D-R = ([R0] x [D]) x ([D] + Kd)

2 / 97

2) What is the loading dose of a drug with volume distribution 20L and its plasma concentration required at steady state is 25 mg/L?

a. 400 mg

b. 500 mg

c. 800 mg

d. 600 mg

e. 200 mg

3 / 97

3) Which drug is excreted with zero order kinetic?

a. alcohol

b. cimetidine

c. atropine

d. rifampicin

e. acetaminophen

4 / 97

4) Amphetamine is weak base with pK3. What pH in the intestine, it would be absorbed 50%?

a. 5

b. 4

c. 2

d. 1

e. 3

5 / 97

5) Poor acetylation may alter metabolism of what drugs?

a. Acetaminophen

b. Aspirin

c. INH

d. Steroid

e. Rifampicin

6 / 97

6) Formulate half-life T1/2 related to rate of elimination Ke?

a. T1/2 = Ke/ln2

b. T1/2=ln2/Ke

c. T1/2= ln2 – Ke

d. T1/2=ln2 x Ke

e. T1/2= ln2 + Ke

7 / 97

7) What polymorphism gene that relate to warfarin metabolism?

a. VKORC1

b. CYP2D7

c. CYP3A4

d. CYP2C9

e. CYP2D6

8 / 97

8) What cytochrome involved in interaction of warfarin and phenobarbital?

a. CYP2C9

b. CYP2D7

c. CYP2D6

d. CYP3A4

e. CYP3A5

9 / 97

9) Interaction of Digoxin combined with Quinidine is done through what process?

a. Displacing from Albumin

b. Binding to Allosteric site of receptor

c. Inactivating P glycoprotein

d. Competition for organic Anion Transporter

e. Activating Cytochrome P450

10 / 97

10) What cause the adverse effect of water-soluble drug in elderly person?

a. decreased volume distribution

b. increased hepatic clearance

c. slow gastric emptying

d. increased renal clearance

e. increased volume distribution

11 / 97

11) Explain what mitochondria DNA mutation give rise to gentamycin ototoxicity?

a. alteration of gentamycin metabolism

b. low affinity to gentamycin

c. increased plasma level of gentamycin

d. decreased excretion of gentamycin

e. hair cells sharing properties with bacteria ribosome

12 / 97

12) Aspirin acts on what of the following enzymes?

a. Cyclooxygenase

b. Phosphodiesterase

c. Carbonic anhydrase

d. Phospholipase

e. Converting enzyme

13 / 97

13) What is the effect of NSAID + Warfarin?

a. hyper coagulation

b. increased inflammation

c. hypo coagulation

d. thrombocytopenia

e. decreased inflammation

14 / 97

14) Furosemide acts on what of the following transporters?

a. H + – K + ATPases pump

b. Co-transport Na + – Cl –

c. Co-transport Na + – K + – 2Cl –

d. Na + – Ca ++ exchanger

e. Na + – K + ATPases pump

15 / 97

15) What is the signification of dissociation constant Kd?

a. Concentration of drug capable of binding 100% of the total receptors

b. Concentration of drug capable of binding 50% of the total receptors

c. Concentration of drug capable of dissociate from receptors by 20%

d. Concentration of drug capable of dissociate from receptors by 80%

e. Concentration of drug capable of dissociate totally from receptors

16 / 97

16) What properties of a drug is to be said antagonist?

a. Low affinity to receptor with no response

b. Affinity to receptor with maximal response

c. Low affinity to receptor with high response

d. Affinity to receptor with submaximal response

e. High affinity to receptor with no response

17 / 97

17) What is the distribution volume of a drug given 500mg iv with its plasma concentration 25mg/L at steady state?

a. 5L

b. 10L

c. 20L

d. 15L

e. 30L

18 / 97

18) Amiloride acts on what of the following transporters?

a. HCO3- – Cl – exchanger

b. Epithelial Na + channel (ENaC)

c. Na + – Ca ++ exchanger

d. Renal outer medullary K + channel (ROMK)

e. Na + – K + ATPases pump

19 / 97

19) Loop diuretics achieves its effect through binding what type of the following transporters?

a. Anion exchange

b. Secondary transport active

c. Primary transport active

d. Facilitated diffusion

e. Simple diffusion

20 / 97

20) What polymorphism gene that relate to tamoxifen metabolism?

a. CYP2D6

b. HLAB*5701

c. CYP3A4

d. CYP2C9

e. VKORC1

21 / 97

21) Interaction of Warfarin combined with cimetidine is done through what process?

a. Inactivating Cytochrome P450

b. Competition for organic Anion Transporter

c. Binding to Allosteric site of receptor

d. Activating P glycoprotein

e. Displacing from Albumin

22 / 97

22) Omeprazole acts on what of the following transporters?

a. Na + – Ca ++ exchanger

b. Co-transport Na + – K + – 2Cl –

c. Na + – K + ATPases pump

d. Co-transport Na + – Cl –

e. H + – K + ATPases pump

23 / 97

23) What is the property of a drug with full agonist but low potency?

a. EC50 high + response submaximal

b. EC50 low + response maximal

c. EC50 low + response submaximal

d. EC50 high + response maximal

24 / 97

24) Poor acetylation may alter metabolism of what drugs?

a. Aspirin

b. Rifampicin

c. Steroid

d. hydralazine

e. Acetaminophen

25 / 97

25) What is the constant of dissociation of a drug Kd from its target?

a. Kd = Kon – Koff

b. Kd = Koff – Kon

c. Kd = Kon/Koff

d. Kd = Kon + Koff

e. Kd = Koff/Kon

26 / 97

26) What HLA gene that related to agranulocytosis with carbamazepine?

a. HLA-DQB*05

b. HLA*1502

c. HLA-DQB1*0201

d. HLAB*5701

e. HLA-DBQ*06

27 / 97

27) Digoxin acts on what of the following transporters?

a. Co-transport Na + – K + – 2Cl –

b. Na + – Ca ++ exchanger

c. Na + – K + ATPases pump

d. H + – K + ATPases pump

e. Co-transport Na + – Cl –

28 / 97

28) Finasteride act on what enzyme?

a. Cyclooxygenases

b. Aromatase

c. Reductase

d. Lipoxygenase

e. Cholinesterase

29 / 97

29) What properties of a drug is to be said inverse agonist?

a. High affinity to receptor with no response

b. Low affinity to receptor with maximal response

c. Affinity to receptor with inverse response

d. Low affinity to receptor with no response

e. High affinity to receptor with submaximal response

30 / 97

30) Poor metabolism to convert codeine to morphine require how dose of codeine?

a. lower

b. normal low

c. normal high

d. higher

e. normal

31 / 97

31) What is the formula for bioavailability of drug? AUC area under curve

a. AUC iv/AUC po x 100

b. AUC po/AUC iv /100

c. AUC po/AUC iv + 100

d. AUC iv/AUC po/100

e. AUC po/AUC iv x 100

32 / 97

32) Which of the following formula is correct concerning affinity of drug (Kd = dissociation constant)?

a. Affinity of a drug = 1/Kd

b. Affinity of a drug = Kd/1

c. Affinity of a drug = Kd – 1

d. Affinity of a drug = 1 + Kd

e. Affinity of a drug = 1 x Kd

33 / 97

33) Effect of aspirin acts through what mechanism?

a. Binding to ionotropic receptor of Na+ channel

b. Opening K + channels for hyperpolarization

c. Binding to metabotropic receptor

d. Inhibiting ACE

e. Inhibiting COX1 and COX2

34 / 97

34) How many haft lives of drug we administrate to get its plasma concentration at steady state?

a. 3

b. 2

c. 4

d. 6

e. 5

35 / 97

35) What are the components of base sequence?

a. C – D – E – F

b. A – G – T – C

c. A – B – C – D

d. G – H – I – J

e. T – U – V – X

36 / 97

36) What is the common substitution of nucleotide in polymorphism?

a. G for A

b. T for C

c. G for T

d. A for G

e. C for T

37 / 97

37) What cytochrome involved in metabolism of imipramine?

a. CYP3A4/5

b. CYP2C9

c. CYP2C10

d. CYP2D7

e. CYP2D6

38 / 97

38) What cytochrome involved in interaction of erythromycin and phenobarbital?

a. CYP2D7

b. CYP2C10

c. CYP3A4/5

d. CYP2D6

e. CYP2C9

39 / 97

39) Digoxin achieves its effect through binding what type of the following transporters?

a. Primary transport active

b. Secondary transport active

c. Anion exchange

d. Facilitated diffusion

e. Simple diffusion

40 / 97

40) What is the property of a drug with small volume distribution?

a. Hydrophilic

b. Macromolecule

c. Amphoteric

d. High affinity to serum albumin

e. Lipophilic

41 / 97

41) Amlodipine acts on what of the following transporters?

a. Ca ++ ATPases pump

b. Na + – Ca ++ exchanger

c. T-type voltage calcium Channel

d. L-type voltage calcium channel

e. K+ dependent calcium channel

42 / 97

42) What is the haft life of a drug with constant elimination Ke 1/10?

a. 10h

b. 4h

c. 7h

d. 8h

e. 5h

43 / 97

43) Amphetamine is weak base with pK3. What pH in the intestine, it would be highly absorbed?

a. 3

b. 5

c. 6

d. 4

e. 2

44 / 97

44) Define Gene

a. order sequence of A-G-T-C

b. Translation error of the messenger RNA

c. change in the base sequence

d. Degeneration of protein

e. Transcription error of the base sequence

45 / 97

45) Exemestane act on what enzyme?

a. Phospholipase

b. Carbonic anhydrase

c. Aromatase

d. Reductase

e. Cyclooxygenases

46 / 97

46) Define polymorphism

a. alternative of the base sequence

b. repeated base sequence

c. change in the base sequence

d. order of the base sequence

e. multiple of messenger RNA

47 / 97

47) What is the property of a drug with partial agonist but high potency?

a. EC50 high + response submaximal

b. EC50 low + response maximal

c. EC50 low + response submaximal

d. EC50 high + response maximal

48 / 97

48) Interaction of probenecid administrated with cephalosporin is done through what process?

a. Displacing from Albumin

b. Activating Cytochrome P450

c. Competition for organic Anion Transporter

d. Inactivating P glycoprotein

e. Competition for Agonic site of receptor

49 / 97

49) Theophylline acts trough what mechanism?

a. Inhibiting COX1 and COX2

b. Activating LOX

c. Inhibiting PDE 3

d. Inhibiting 5α reductase

e. Inhibiting cholinesterase

50 / 97

50) Give the equation for maintenance dose?

a. D = distribution volume x effective plasma concentration

b. D = distribution volume + effective plasma concentration

c. D = distribution volume /effective plasma concentration

d. D = Clearance/effective plasma concentration

e. D = Clearance x effective plasma concentration

51 / 97

51) What Enzyme detoxify 5FU?

a. Xanthine oxidase

b. Cholinesterase

c. TPMT

d. G6PD

e. DPYD

52 / 97

52) Calcium channel blocker acts through what mechanism?

a. Block calcium dependent potassium channel

b. Block voltage dependent calcium channel

c. Block Ca ++ ATPase pump

d. Block Na + – Ca ++ exchanger

e. Activate inactive gate of calcium channel

53 / 97

53) What is the management to avoid interaction of rifampicin with warfarin?

a. decrease dose of precipitant drug

b. avoid concurrent therapy

c. Change formula of one drug

d. give one drugs on hour before another

e. adjust dose of affected drug after INR

54 / 97

54) What Enzyme deficiency related to gene mutation → hemolysis?

a. TPMT

b. G6PD

c. Xanthine oxidase

d. Cholinesterase

e. DPYD

55 / 97

55) Which drug is excreted with zero order kinetic?

a. atropine

b. cimetidine

c. rifampicin

d. acetaminophen

e. aspirin

56 / 97

56) Aspirin is a weak acid with pK3. What pH in the stomach Aspirin would be absorbed 50%?

a. 2

b. 5

c. 4

d. 1

e. 3

57 / 97

57) What quality of drug is to be said high affinity to its target?

a. rate of dissociation [Kd] is high

b. rate of dissociation [Kd] is low

c. rate of dissociation [Kd] is indefinite

d. rate of dissociation [Kd] is medium

e. rate of dissociation [Kd] is very high

58 / 97

58) Define mutation

a. Degeneration of protein

b. Transcription error of the base sequence

c. Translation error of the messenger RNA

d. change in the base sequence

e. order sequence of A-G-T-C

59 / 97

59) What Enzyme deficiency related to gene mutation → bone toxicity by thiopurines?

a. Cholinesterase

b. G6PD

c. Xanthine oxidase

d. DPYD

e. TPMT

60 / 97

60) What is the management to interaction of interaction cimetidine – warfarin?

a. checkup INR

b. give another anti secretion acid

c. decrease dose of cimetidine

d. increase dose of warfarin

e. avoid concurrent therapy

61 / 97

61) What is the meaning of EC50?

a. Drug concentration gives rise to efficacity optimum

b. One half-life gives rise to efficacy 50%

c. Drug concentration gives rise to efficacity 50%

d. Drug concentration gives rise to efficacity maximum

e. Drug concentration gives rise to efficacity in one half life

62 / 97

62) THIAZIDES acts on what of the following transporters?

a. HCO3- – Cl – exchanger

b. Na + – Ca ++ exchanger

c. Co-transport Na + – Cl –

d. H + – K + ATPases pump

e. Na + – K + ATPases pump

63 / 97

63) Physostigmine act on what enzyme?

a. Cholinesterase

b. Reductase

c. Cyclooxygenases

d. Lipoxygenase

e. Aromatase

64 / 97

64) What is the property of a drug with large volume distribution?

a. Lipophilic

b. Hydrophilic

c. Amphoteric

d. High affinity to serum albumin

e. Macromolecule

65 / 97

65) What is the formula of plasma centration of drug at any time (CT) during elimination? C0: initial concentration; Ke constant of elimination; T: time

a. CT = C0 / KeT

b. CT = C0.e -KeT

c. CT = C0 x KeT

d. CT = C0 + KeT

e. CT = C0 – KeT

66 / 97

66) How many haft lives of drug the kidney should clear it totally from the body?

a. 4

b. 6

c. 5

d. 3

e. 2

67 / 97

67) What cause the adverse effect of fat-soluble drug in elderly person?

a. increased hepatic clearance

b. increased renal clearance

c. slow gastric emptying

d. decreased volume distribution

e. increased volume distribution

68 / 97

68) Interaction of Tetracycline with Aluminum is done through what process?

a. competition for organic cation transport

b. deconjugation

c. Inactivating P glycoprotein

d. competition for organic anion transport

e. chelation

69 / 97

69) What is single nucleotide polymorphism?

a. repeated of one nucleotide

b. loss one nucleotide

c. gain one nucleotide

d. change the sequence of nucleotides

e. substitution of one nucleotide for another

70 / 97

70) Define inverse agonist

a. affinity to receptor with maximal response

b. No affinity to receptor with inverse response

c. affinity to receptor with no response

d. affinity to receptor with inverse response

e. affinity to receptor with partial response

71 / 97

71) What metabolic pathway of drug is preferred to the elderly person?

a. oxidation

b. alkylation

c. glucuronidation

d. acetylation

e. reduction

72 / 97

72) Aspirin is a weak acid with pK3. What pH in the stomach Aspirin would be highly absorbed?

a. 5

b. 2

c. 3

d. 1

e. 4

73 / 97

73) Relate elimination constant (Ke) to clearance (CL) and distribution volume (Vd) of drug?

a. Ke = Vd – CL

b. Ke = CL/Vd

c. Ke = Vd x CL

d. Ke = Vd/CL

e. Ke = Vd + CL

74 / 97

74) What is the property of a drug with full agonist and high potency?

a. EC50 low + response submaximal

b. EC50 high + response submaximal

c. EC50 high + response maximal

d. EC50 low + response maximal

e. EC50 low + response inverse

75 / 97

75) What Enzyme deficiency due to gene mutation → interaction thiopurine with allopurinol?

a. Xanthine oxidase

b. G6PD

c. TPMT

d. DPYD

e. Cholinesterase

76 / 97

76) Triamterene acts on what of the following transporters?

a. Cation exchange

b. Facilitated diffusion

c. Anion exchange

d. Primary transport active

e. Simple diffusion

77 / 97

77) What HLA gene that related to Stevens Johnson syndrome with carbamazepine?

a. HLA*1502

b. HLA-DQB1*0201

c. HLA-DBQ*06

d. HLAB*5701

e. HLA-DQB*05

78 / 97

78) Sildenafil acts trough what mechanism?

a. Activating Carbonic anhydrase

b. Inhibiting cholinesterase

c. Inhibiting LOX

d. Activating aromatase

e. Inhibiting PDE5

79 / 97

79) What pathway of administration of drug result in bioavailability 100%?

a. Inhalation

b. PO

c. Subcutaneous

d. IM

e. IV

80 / 97

80) What is the result of polymorphism for an individual to response to a drug?

a. different drugs have different response in different individuals

b. same drug with different responses in different individuals

c. same drug with same response in different individuals

d. same drug with different responses in an individual

e. different drugs have the same response in an individual

81 / 97

81) What is the mechanism of action of morphine?

a. Acting through binding on enzyme adenylate cyclase

b. Acting through binding on exchanger Na + – Ca ++

c. Acting through binding on G protein couple receptor

d. Acting through binding on tyrosine kinase coupled receptor

e. Acting through binding on potassium channel

82 / 97

82) Which of the following metabolisms is used in biotransformation (phase 1) in the liver?

a. Glucuronidation

b. Acetylation

c. Sulfation

d. Methylation

e. Hydrolysis

83 / 97

83) Omeprazole achieves its effect through binding what type of the following transporters?

a. Secondary transport active

b. Simple diffusion

c. Anion exchange

d. Facilitated diffusion

e. Primary transport active

84 / 97

84) Amlodipine (CCB) achieves its effect through binding what type of the following transporters?

a. Simple diffusion

b. Secondary transport active

c. Facilitated diffusion

d. Primary transport active

e. Anion exchange

85 / 97

85) What cytochrome involved in interaction of verapamil and rifampicin?

a. CYP3A4/5

b. CYP2C9

c. CYP2D7

d. CYP2C10

e. CYP2D6

86 / 97

86) What polymorphism gene that relate to affinity of warfarin?

a. CYP2D6

b. CYP3A4

c. CYP2C9

d. VKORC1

e. CYP2D7

87 / 97

87) What properties of a drug is to be said full agonist?

a. Affinity to receptor with inverse response

b. Low affinity to receptor with no response

c. Affinity to receptor with submaximal response

d. Affinity to receptor with no response

e. Affinity to receptor with high maximal response

88 / 97

88) Aldosterone achieves its effect through what mechanism?

a. Activating carbonic anhydrase

b. Binding to intracellular receptor of principle cell of renal tubule

c. Activating Na + – K + channels

d. Producing sodium – glucose transporter 2

e. Inhibiting converting enzyme

89 / 97

89) Poor acetylation may alter metabolism of what drugs?

a. Acetaminophen

b. Aspirin

c. Steroid

d. Rifampicin

e. phenytoin

90 / 97

90) What is the effect of AVP on V2 receptor?

a. Vasoconstriction

b. Activation post-synaptic potential

c. Reabsorption of Na + – Cl –

d. ACTH releasing

e. Reabsorption of water

91 / 97

91) What is the property of a drug with full agonist and low potency?

a. EC50 low + response submaximal

b. EC50 high + response submaximal

c. EC50 low + response maximal

d. EC50 high + response maximal

e. EC50 high + response inverse

92 / 97

92) Which of the following metabolisms is used to conjugate (phase 2) a metabolite in the liver?

a. Hydroxylation

b. Oxidation

c. Hydrolysis

d. Acetylation

e. Deamination

93 / 97

93) When partial agonist drug is given with full agonist drug, what is the dynamic interaction as a result?

a. permissive

b. additive

c. synergic

d. competitive

e. inverse

94 / 97

94) What second messenger involved in mechanism of action of morphine?

a. Calmodulin

b. cAMP

c. DAG

d. cGMP

e. IP3

95 / 97

95) What is the effect of AVP on V1 receptor?

a. Inhibition post-synaptic potential

b. ACTH releasing

c. Vasoconstriction

d. Reabsorption of Na + – Cl –

e. Reabsorption of water

96 / 97

96) What HLA gene that related to susceptibility of abacavir?

a. HLAB*5701

b. HLA*1502

c. HLA-DQB*05

d. HLA-DQB1*0201

e. HLA-DBQ*06

97 / 97

97) What combination should be avoided in a patient with ischemic heart disease?

a. CCB + β blocker

b. Prostaglandin + nitrate

c. Prostaglandin +β blocker

d. sildenafil + nitrate

e. sildenafil + β blocker

Your score is

The average score is 55%

Any comments?

Any problems/errors or mistakes found while testing, please let us know for modification!

និស្សិតអាចប្រាប់មកកាន់ពួកយើងបានដើម្បីកែកំហុស ឬអំពីបញ្ហាដោយអចេតនាណាមួយដែលកើតមានកំឡុងពេលធ្វើតេស្ត