Pharmacologie Preparation (Pr.Ast. Duong Dararith)

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1 / 97

1) Which of the following metabolisms is used in biotransformation (phase 1) in the liver?

a. Hydrolysis

b. Acetylation

c. Methylation

d. Glucuronidation

e. Sulfation

2 / 97

2) Furosemide acts on what of the following transporters?

a. Co-transport Na + – K + – 2Cl –

b. Na + – Ca ++ exchanger

c. H + – K + ATPases pump

d. Co-transport Na + – Cl –

e. Na + – K + ATPases pump

3 / 97

3) What cytochrome involved in metabolism of imipramine?

a. CYP3A4/5

b. CYP2C9

c. CYP2D7

d. CYP2C10

e. CYP2D6

4 / 97

4) What is the formula of plasma centration of drug at any time (CT) during elimination? C0: initial concentration; Ke constant of elimination; T: time

a. CT = C0.e -KeT

b. CT = C0 / KeT

c. CT = C0 – KeT

d. CT = C0 x KeT

e. CT = C0 + KeT

5 / 97

5) What Enzyme deficiency related to gene mutation → bone toxicity by thiopurines?

a. TPMT

b. Cholinesterase

c. Xanthine oxidase

d. G6PD

e. DPYD

6 / 97

6) Amiloride acts on what of the following transporters?

a. Epithelial Na + channel (ENaC)

b. Renal outer medullary K + channel (ROMK)

c. Na + – K + ATPases pump

d. HCO3- – Cl – exchanger

e. Na + – Ca ++ exchanger

7 / 97

7) Aspirin is a weak acid with pK3. What pH in the stomach Aspirin would be highly absorbed?

a. 3

b. 5

c. 1

d. 2

e. 4

8 / 97

8) What polymorphism gene that relate to affinity of warfarin?

a. CYP2C9

b. CYP2D6

c. CYP3A4

d. CYP2D7

e. VKORC1

9 / 97

9) Which drug is excreted with zero order kinetic?

a. cimetidine

b. rifampicin

c. alcohol

d. acetaminophen

e. atropine

10 / 97

10) Digoxin achieves its effect through binding what type of the following transporters?

a. Primary transport active

b. Anion exchange

c. Simple diffusion

d. Secondary transport active

e. Facilitated diffusion

11 / 97

11) What is the property of a drug with partial agonist but high potency?

a. EC50 high + response submaximal

b. EC50 high + response maximal

c. EC50 low + response submaximal

d. EC50 low + response maximal

12 / 97

12) Triamterene acts on what of the following transporters?

a. Simple diffusion

b. Primary transport active

c. Cation exchange

d. Anion exchange

e. Facilitated diffusion

13 / 97

13) Define mutation

a. order sequence of A-G-T-C

b. Transcription error of the base sequence

c. Translation error of the messenger RNA

d. Degeneration of protein

e. change in the base sequence

14 / 97

14) Define polymorphism

a. multiple of messenger RNA

b. alternative of the base sequence

c. change in the base sequence

d. order of the base sequence

e. repeated base sequence

15 / 97

15) What is the meaning of EC50?

a. Drug concentration gives rise to efficacity maximum

b. Drug concentration gives rise to efficacity 50%

c. Drug concentration gives rise to efficacity in one half life

d. One half-life gives rise to efficacy 50%

e. Drug concentration gives rise to efficacity optimum

16 / 97

16) Formulate half-life T1/2 related to rate of elimination Ke?

a. T1/2 = Ke/ln2

b. T1/2= ln2 – Ke

c. T1/2=ln2 x Ke

d. T1/2=ln2/Ke

e. T1/2= ln2 + Ke

17 / 97

17) Theophylline acts trough what mechanism?

a. Activating LOX

b. Inhibiting 5α reductase

c. Inhibiting COX1 and COX2

d. Inhibiting PDE 3

e. Inhibiting cholinesterase

18 / 97

18) Sildenafil acts trough what mechanism?

a. Inhibiting LOX

b. Activating Carbonic anhydrase

c. Inhibiting cholinesterase

d. Inhibiting PDE5

e. Activating aromatase

19 / 97

19) Define Gene

a. Transcription error of the base sequence

b. order sequence of A-G-T-C

c. change in the base sequence

d. Degeneration of protein

e. Translation error of the messenger RNA

20 / 97

20) Digoxin acts on what of the following transporters?

a. Na + – K + ATPases pump

b. Co-transport Na + – K + – 2Cl –

c. Co-transport Na + – Cl –

d. Na + – Ca ++ exchanger

e. H + – K + ATPases pump

21 / 97

21) What is the effect of AVP on V1 receptor?

a. Reabsorption of Na + – Cl –

b. ACTH releasing

c. Reabsorption of water

d. Inhibition post-synaptic potential

e. Vasoconstriction

22 / 97

22) What is the haft life of a drug with constant elimination Ke 1/10?

a. 10h

b. 7h

c. 4h

d. 8h

e. 5h

23 / 97

23) What is the property of a drug with small volume distribution?

a. Lipophilic

b. Hydrophilic

c. Amphoteric

d. High affinity to serum albumin

e. Macromolecule

24 / 97

24) What cytochrome involved in interaction of erythromycin and phenobarbital?

a. CYP3A4/5

b. CYP2D6

c. CYP2C10

d. CYP2D7

e. CYP2C9

25 / 97

25) What properties of a drug is to be said full agonist?

a. Affinity to receptor with submaximal response

b. Affinity to receptor with no response

c. Affinity to receptor with inverse response

d. Low affinity to receptor with no response

e. Affinity to receptor with high maximal response

26 / 97

26) What combination should be avoided in a patient with ischemic heart disease?

a. sildenafil + nitrate

b. Prostaglandin + nitrate

c. Prostaglandin +β blocker

d. sildenafil + β blocker

e. CCB + β blocker

27 / 97

27) Effect of aspirin acts through what mechanism?

a. Inhibiting ACE

b. Opening K + channels for hyperpolarization

c. Binding to ionotropic receptor of Na+ channel

d. Inhibiting COX1 and COX2

e. Binding to metabotropic receptor

28 / 97

28) Finasteride act on what enzyme?

a. Aromatase

b. Cyclooxygenases

c. Lipoxygenase

d. Reductase

e. Cholinesterase

29 / 97

29) What is the effect of NSAID + Warfarin?

a. hyper coagulation

b. decreased inflammation

c. hypo coagulation

d. increased inflammation

e. thrombocytopenia

30 / 97

30) What second messenger involved in mechanism of action of morphine?

a. Calmodulin

b. IP3

c. cAMP

d. cGMP

e. DAG

31 / 97

31) What is the signification of dissociation constant Kd?

a. Concentration of drug capable of dissociate from receptors by 20%

b. Concentration of drug capable of binding 50% of the total receptors

c. Concentration of drug capable of binding 100% of the total receptors

d. Concentration of drug capable of dissociate totally from receptors

e. Concentration of drug capable of dissociate from receptors by 80%

32 / 97

32) Poor acetylation may alter metabolism of what drugs?

a. Rifampicin

b. Aspirin

c. hydralazine

d. Steroid

e. Acetaminophen

33 / 97

33) Loop diuretics achieves its effect through binding what type of the following transporters?

a. Simple diffusion

b. Primary transport active

c. Facilitated diffusion

d. Secondary transport active

e. Anion exchange

34 / 97

34) Poor metabolism to convert codeine to morphine require how dose of codeine?

a. normal low

b. lower

c. normal high

d. normal

e. higher

35 / 97

35) Poor acetylation may alter metabolism of what drugs?

a. Rifampicin

b. Aspirin

c. phenytoin

d. Steroid

e. Acetaminophen

36 / 97

36) What quality of drug is to be said high affinity to its target?

a. rate of dissociation [Kd] is high

b. rate of dissociation [Kd] is medium

c. rate of dissociation [Kd] is very high

d. rate of dissociation [Kd] is indefinite

e. rate of dissociation [Kd] is low

37 / 97

37) Poor acetylation may alter metabolism of what drugs?

a. INH

b. Steroid

c. Rifampicin

d. Aspirin

e. Acetaminophen

38 / 97

38) Aspirin acts on what of the following enzymes?

a. Cyclooxygenase

b. Converting enzyme

c. Carbonic anhydrase

d. Phospholipase

e. Phosphodiesterase

39 / 97

39) What is single nucleotide polymorphism?

a. loss one nucleotide

b. gain one nucleotide

c. change the sequence of nucleotides

d. repeated of one nucleotide

e. substitution of one nucleotide for another

40 / 97

40) What pathway of administration of drug result in bioavailability 100%?

a. PO

b. IV

c. Inhalation

d. IM

e. Subcutaneous

41 / 97

41) What polymorphism gene that relate to warfarin metabolism?

a. VKORC1

b. CYP2D7

c. CYP2D6

d. CYP3A4

e. CYP2C9

42 / 97

42) What is the property of a drug with full agonist and low potency?

a. EC50 high + response inverse

b. EC50 high + response maximal

c. EC50 high + response submaximal

d. EC50 low + response submaximal

e. EC50 low + response maximal

43 / 97

43) What is the mechanism of action of morphine?

a. Acting through binding on exchanger Na + – Ca ++

b. Acting through binding on enzyme adenylate cyclase

c. Acting through binding on tyrosine kinase coupled receptor

d. Acting through binding on G protein couple receptor

e. Acting through binding on potassium channel

44 / 97

44) What is the property of a drug with full agonist and high potency?

a. EC50 high + response maximal

b. EC50 low + response submaximal

c. EC50 high + response submaximal

d. EC50 low + response maximal

e. EC50 low + response inverse

45 / 97

45) What cytochrome involved in interaction of verapamil and rifampicin?

a. CYP3A4/5

b. CYP2D6

c. CYP2C10

d. CYP2C9

e. CYP2D7

46 / 97

46) What HLA gene that related to Stevens Johnson syndrome with carbamazepine?

a. HLA*1502

b. HLA-DQB1*0201

c. HLA-DBQ*06

d. HLA-DQB*05

e. HLAB*5701

47 / 97

47) What is the formula for bioavailability of drug? AUC area under curve

a. AUC po/AUC iv /100

b. AUC po/AUC iv + 100

c. AUC po/AUC iv x 100

d. AUC iv/AUC po x 100

e. AUC iv/AUC po/100

48 / 97

48) What Enzyme deficiency related to gene mutation → hemolysis?

a. Xanthine oxidase

b. DPYD

c. TPMT

d. Cholinesterase

e. G6PD

49 / 97

49) What properties of a drug is to be said antagonist?

a. Affinity to receptor with submaximal response

b. Affinity to receptor with maximal response

c. High affinity to receptor with no response

d. Low affinity to receptor with no response

e. Low affinity to receptor with high response

50 / 97

50) Physostigmine act on what enzyme?

a. Reductase

b. Aromatase

c. Cholinesterase

d. Cyclooxygenases

e. Lipoxygenase

51 / 97

51) Relate elimination constant (Ke) to clearance (CL) and distribution volume (Vd) of drug?

a. Ke = Vd + CL

b. Ke = Vd x CL

c. Ke = CL/Vd

d. Ke = Vd – CL

e. Ke = Vd/CL

52 / 97

52) Define inverse agonist

a. No affinity to receptor with inverse response

b. affinity to receptor with inverse response

c. affinity to receptor with partial response

d. affinity to receptor with no response

e. affinity to receptor with maximal response

53 / 97

53) How many haft lives of drug we administrate to get its plasma concentration at steady state?

a. 4

b. 3

c. 2

d. 5

e. 6

54 / 97

54) What is the common substitution of nucleotide in polymorphism?

a. C for T

b. T for C

c. G for T

d. G for A

e. A for G

55 / 97

55) What is the effect of AVP on V2 receptor?

a. Reabsorption of water

b. ACTH releasing

c. Vasoconstriction

d. Activation post-synaptic potential

e. Reabsorption of Na + – Cl –

56 / 97

56) What metabolic pathway of drug is preferred to the elderly person?

a. reduction

b. glucuronidation

c. oxidation

d. alkylation

e. acetylation

57 / 97

57) What is the constant of dissociation of a drug Kd from its target?

a. Kd = Kon + Koff

b. Kd = Koff – Kon

c. Kd = Kon/Koff

d. Kd = Kon – Koff

e. Kd = Koff/Kon

58 / 97

58) Interaction of probenecid administrated with cephalosporin is done through what process?

a. Activating Cytochrome P450

b. Competition for organic Anion Transporter

c. Inactivating P glycoprotein

d. Competition for Agonic site of receptor

e. Displacing from Albumin

59 / 97

59) Which of the following formula is correct concerning affinity of drug (Kd = dissociation constant)?

a. Affinity of a drug = 1 x Kd

b. Affinity of a drug = Kd/1

c. Affinity of a drug = 1/Kd

d. Affinity of a drug = Kd – 1

e. Affinity of a drug = 1 + Kd

60 / 97

60) Aspirin is a weak acid with pK3. What pH in the stomach Aspirin would be absorbed 50%?

a. 3

b. 1

c. 5

d. 4

e. 2

61 / 97

61) Which drug is excreted with zero order kinetic?

a. cimetidine

b. rifampicin

c. aspirin

d. atropine

e. acetaminophen

62 / 97

62) What Enzyme deficiency due to gene mutation → interaction thiopurine with allopurinol?

a. Cholinesterase

b. TPMT

c. Xanthine oxidase

d. G6PD

e. DPYD

63 / 97

63) When partial agonist drug is given with full agonist drug, what is the dynamic interaction as a result?

a. permissive

b. additive

c. inverse

d. competitive

e. synergic

64 / 97

64) What are the components of base sequence?

a. G – H – I – J

b. A – G – T – C

c. T – U – V – X

d. A – B – C – D

e. C – D – E – F

65 / 97

65) What is the distribution volume of a drug given 500mg iv with its plasma concentration 25mg/L at steady state?

a. 20L

b. 15L

c. 5L

d. 10L

e. 30L

66 / 97

66) Amlodipine acts on what of the following transporters?

a. Ca ++ ATPases pump

b. Na + – Ca ++ exchanger

c. L-type voltage calcium channel

d. T-type voltage calcium Channel

e. K+ dependent calcium channel

67 / 97

67) What properties of a drug is to be said inverse agonist?

a. High affinity to receptor with submaximal response

b. Affinity to receptor with inverse response

c. Low affinity to receptor with no response

d. High affinity to receptor with no response

e. Low affinity to receptor with maximal response

68 / 97

68) Amphetamine is weak base with pK3. What pH in the intestine, it would be highly absorbed?

a. 4

b. 2

c. 3

d. 5

e. 6

69 / 97

69) What HLA gene that related to agranulocytosis with carbamazepine?

a. HLA-DBQ*06

b. HLA-DQB1*0201

c. HLAB*5701

d. HLA-DQB*05

e. HLA*1502

70 / 97

70) How many haft lives of drug the kidney should clear it totally from the body?

a. 4

b. 3

c. 5

d. 2

e. 6

71 / 97

71) What cytochrome involved in interaction of warfarin and phenobarbital?

a. CYP2C9

b. CYP2D7

c. CYP3A4

d. CYP3A5

e. CYP2D6

72 / 97

72) Aldosterone achieves its effect through what mechanism?

a. Binding to intracellular receptor of principle cell of renal tubule

b. Inhibiting converting enzyme

c. Producing sodium – glucose transporter 2

d. Activating carbonic anhydrase

e. Activating Na + – K + channels

73 / 97

73) Interaction of Tetracycline with Aluminum is done through what process?

a. competition for organic cation transport

b. deconjugation

c. chelation

d. Inactivating P glycoprotein

e. competition for organic anion transport

74 / 97

74) Omeprazole acts on what of the following transporters?

a. Na + – Ca ++ exchanger

b. H + – K + ATPases pump

c. Co-transport Na + – Cl –

d. Co-transport Na + – K + – 2Cl –

e. Na + – K + ATPases pump

75 / 97

75) What HLA gene that related to susceptibility of abacavir?

a. HLA-DQB*05

b. HLA-DQB1*0201

c. HLAB*5701

d. HLA-DBQ*06

e. HLA*1502

76 / 97

76) What is the management to avoid interaction of rifampicin with warfarin?

a. adjust dose of affected drug after INR

b. Change formula of one drug

c. avoid concurrent therapy

d. give one drugs on hour before another

e. decrease dose of precipitant drug

77 / 97

77) What is the property of a drug with large volume distribution?

a. High affinity to serum albumin

b. Macromolecule

c. Hydrophilic

d. Amphoteric

e. Lipophilic

78 / 97

78) Exemestane act on what enzyme?

a. Aromatase

b. Phospholipase

c. Cyclooxygenases

d. Reductase

e. Carbonic anhydrase

79 / 97

79) What is the property of a drug with full agonist but low potency?

a. EC50 high + response maximal

b. EC50 high + response submaximal

c. EC50 low + response maximal

d. EC50 low + response submaximal

80 / 97

80) What is the loading dose of a drug with volume distribution 20L and its plasma concentration required at steady state is 25 mg/L?

a. 800 mg

b. 600 mg

c. 400 mg

d. 200 mg

e. 500 mg

81 / 97

81) Which of the following metabolisms is used to conjugate (phase 2) a metabolite in the liver?

a. Hydrolysis

b. Deamination

c. Acetylation

d. Hydroxylation

e. Oxidation

82 / 97

82) What is the result of polymorphism for an individual to response to a drug?

a. different drugs have the same response in an individual

b. same drug with different responses in an individual

c. same drug with same response in different individuals

d. same drug with different responses in different individuals

e. different drugs have different response in different individuals

83 / 97

83) What is the management to interaction of interaction cimetidine – warfarin?

a. checkup INR

b. avoid concurrent therapy

c. decrease dose of cimetidine

d. give another anti secretion acid

e. increase dose of warfarin

84 / 97

84) Calcium channel blocker acts through what mechanism?

a. Block calcium dependent potassium channel

b. Block Na + – Ca ++ exchanger

c. Block Ca ++ ATPase pump

d. Block voltage dependent calcium channel

e. Activate inactive gate of calcium channel

85 / 97

85) Amlodipine (CCB) achieves its effect through binding what type of the following transporters?

a. Anion exchange

b. Primary transport active

c. Simple diffusion

d. Facilitated diffusion

e. Secondary transport active

86 / 97

86) THIAZIDES acts on what of the following transporters?

a. Na + – Ca ++ exchanger

b. HCO3- – Cl – exchanger

c. H + – K + ATPases pump

d. Co-transport Na + – Cl –

e. Na + – K + ATPases pump

87 / 97

87) Amphetamine is weak base with pK3. What pH in the intestine, it would be absorbed 50%?

a. 2

b. 1

c. 5

d. 4

e. 3

88 / 97

88) What polymorphism gene that relate to tamoxifen metabolism?

a. CYP2D6

b. VKORC1

c. CYP3A4

d. CYP2C9

e. HLAB*5701

89 / 97

89) Explain what mitochondria DNA mutation give rise to gentamycin ototoxicity?

a. decreased excretion of gentamycin

b. hair cells sharing properties with bacteria ribosome

c. increased plasma level of gentamycin

d. low affinity to gentamycin

e. alteration of gentamycin metabolism

90 / 97

90) Interaction of Warfarin combined with cimetidine is done through what process?

a. Competition for organic Anion Transporter

b. Displacing from Albumin

c. Activating P glycoprotein

d. Inactivating Cytochrome P450

e. Binding to Allosteric site of receptor

91 / 97

91) Owing to Kd = dissociation constant; Ro = Total receptor. Formulate law mass action indicating the interaction between Drug – Receptor (D – R)

a. D-R = ([R0] x [D]) / ([D] + Kd)

b. D-R = ([R0] + [D]) / ([D] x Kd)

c. D-R = ([R0] x [D]) x ([D] + Kd)

d. D-R = ([R0] x [D]) + ([D] + Kd)

e. D-R = ([R0] x [D]) – ([D] + Kd)

92 / 97

92) Interaction of Digoxin combined with Quinidine is done through what process?

a. Binding to Allosteric site of receptor

b. Inactivating P glycoprotein

c. Competition for organic Anion Transporter

d. Displacing from Albumin

e. Activating Cytochrome P450

93 / 97

93) What cause the adverse effect of water-soluble drug in elderly person?

a. slow gastric emptying

b. increased renal clearance

c. decreased volume distribution

d. increased volume distribution

e. increased hepatic clearance

94 / 97

94) What cause the adverse effect of fat-soluble drug in elderly person?

a. decreased volume distribution

b. slow gastric emptying

c. increased renal clearance

d. increased volume distribution

e. increased hepatic clearance

95 / 97

95) Omeprazole achieves its effect through binding what type of the following transporters?

a. Facilitated diffusion

b. Anion exchange

c. Secondary transport active

d. Simple diffusion

e. Primary transport active

96 / 97

96) What Enzyme detoxify 5FU?

a. Cholinesterase

b. DPYD

c. Xanthine oxidase

d. G6PD

e. TPMT

97 / 97

97) Give the equation for maintenance dose?

a. D = distribution volume x effective plasma concentration

b. D = Clearance/effective plasma concentration

c. D = distribution volume + effective plasma concentration

d. D = Clearance x effective plasma concentration

e. D = distribution volume /effective plasma concentration

Your score is

The average score is 55%

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និស្សិតអាចប្រាប់មកកាន់ពួកយើងបានដើម្បីកែកំហុស ឬអំពីបញ្ហាដោយអចេតនាណាមួយដែលកើតមានកំឡុងពេលធ្វើតេស្ត