Pharmacologie Preparation (Pr.Ast. Duong Dararith)

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1338

1 / 97

1) What cytochrome involved in interaction of verapamil and rifampicin?

a. CYP2D6

b. CYP2D7

c. CYP2C9

d. CYP3A4/5

e. CYP2C10

2 / 97

2) Which drug is excreted with zero order kinetic?

a. cimetidine

b. rifampicin

c. atropine

d. aspirin

e. acetaminophen

3 / 97

3) Amphetamine is weak base with pK3. What pH in the intestine, it would be highly absorbed?

a. 3

b. 5

c. 4

d. 6

e. 2

4 / 97

4) What second messenger involved in mechanism of action of morphine?

a. cGMP

b. cAMP

c. IP3

d. Calmodulin

e. DAG

5 / 97

5) Explain what mitochondria DNA mutation give rise to gentamycin ototoxicity?

a. alteration of gentamycin metabolism

b. increased plasma level of gentamycin

c. low affinity to gentamycin

d. hair cells sharing properties with bacteria ribosome

e. decreased excretion of gentamycin

6 / 97

6) Aldosterone achieves its effect through what mechanism?

a. Activating carbonic anhydrase

b. Producing sodium – glucose transporter 2

c. Binding to intracellular receptor of principle cell of renal tubule

d. Activating Na + – K + channels

e. Inhibiting converting enzyme

7 / 97

7) Interaction of Warfarin combined with cimetidine is done through what process?

a. Activating P glycoprotein

b. Binding to Allosteric site of receptor

c. Displacing from Albumin

d. Inactivating Cytochrome P450

e. Competition for organic Anion Transporter

8 / 97

8) Omeprazole achieves its effect through binding what type of the following transporters?

a. Secondary transport active

b. Simple diffusion

c. Anion exchange

d. Primary transport active

e. Facilitated diffusion

9 / 97

9) What cytochrome involved in metabolism of imipramine?

a. CYP3A4/5

b. CYP2C10

c. CYP2C9

d. CYP2D6

e. CYP2D7

10 / 97

10) Sildenafil acts trough what mechanism?

a. Inhibiting cholinesterase

b. Inhibiting PDE5

c. Inhibiting LOX

d. Activating aromatase

e. Activating Carbonic anhydrase

11 / 97

11) Define polymorphism

a. order of the base sequence

b. multiple of messenger RNA

c. alternative of the base sequence

d. change in the base sequence

e. repeated base sequence

12 / 97

12) What Enzyme detoxify 5FU?

a. G6PD

b. TPMT

c. Cholinesterase

d. DPYD

e. Xanthine oxidase

13 / 97

13) Define mutation

a. Transcription error of the base sequence

b. order sequence of A-G-T-C

c. change in the base sequence

d. Translation error of the messenger RNA

e. Degeneration of protein

14 / 97

14) Interaction of probenecid administrated with cephalosporin is done through what process?

a. Displacing from Albumin

b. Activating Cytochrome P450

c. Competition for organic Anion Transporter

d. Inactivating P glycoprotein

e. Competition for Agonic site of receptor

15 / 97

15) What is the management to interaction of interaction cimetidine – warfarin?

a. increase dose of warfarin

b. checkup INR

c. give another anti secretion acid

d. decrease dose of cimetidine

e. avoid concurrent therapy

16 / 97

16) What properties of a drug is to be said antagonist?

a. Affinity to receptor with submaximal response

b. Low affinity to receptor with high response

c. Affinity to receptor with maximal response

d. High affinity to receptor with no response

e. Low affinity to receptor with no response

17 / 97

17) What is single nucleotide polymorphism?

a. gain one nucleotide

b. change the sequence of nucleotides

c. repeated of one nucleotide

d. substitution of one nucleotide for another

e. loss one nucleotide

18 / 97

18) Which of the following metabolisms is used in biotransformation (phase 1) in the liver?

a. Methylation

b. Glucuronidation

c. Hydrolysis

d. Acetylation

e. Sulfation

19 / 97

19) Amlodipine (CCB) achieves its effect through binding what type of the following transporters?

a. Secondary transport active

b. Anion exchange

c. Primary transport active

d. Facilitated diffusion

e. Simple diffusion

20 / 97

20) What cause the adverse effect of water-soluble drug in elderly person?

a. slow gastric emptying

b. decreased volume distribution

c. increased renal clearance

d. increased volume distribution

e. increased hepatic clearance

21 / 97

21) Furosemide acts on what of the following transporters?

a. Na + – K + ATPases pump

b. Na + – Ca ++ exchanger

c. H + – K + ATPases pump

d. Co-transport Na + – Cl –

e. Co-transport Na + – K + – 2Cl –

22 / 97

22) Interaction of Tetracycline with Aluminum is done through what process?

a. competition for organic cation transport

b. chelation

c. Inactivating P glycoprotein

d. deconjugation

e. competition for organic anion transport

23 / 97

23) Effect of aspirin acts through what mechanism?

a. Inhibiting COX1 and COX2

b. Binding to ionotropic receptor of Na+ channel

c. Opening K + channels for hyperpolarization

d. Binding to metabotropic receptor

e. Inhibiting ACE

24 / 97

24) What polymorphism gene that relate to affinity of warfarin?

a. CYP2D6

b. CYP2D7

c. CYP3A4

d. VKORC1

e. CYP2C9

25 / 97

25) Aspirin is a weak acid with pK3. What pH in the stomach Aspirin would be absorbed 50%?

a. 3

b. 4

c. 1

d. 2

e. 5

26 / 97

26) What is the property of a drug with full agonist but low potency?

a. EC50 high + response maximal

b. EC50 low + response maximal

c. EC50 low + response submaximal

d. EC50 high + response submaximal

27 / 97

27) What Enzyme deficiency related to gene mutation → bone toxicity by thiopurines?

a. Cholinesterase

b. G6PD

c. DPYD

d. Xanthine oxidase

e. TPMT

28 / 97

28) Poor metabolism to convert codeine to morphine require how dose of codeine?

a. higher

b. lower

c. normal

d. normal high

e. normal low

29 / 97

29) Which of the following formula is correct concerning affinity of drug (Kd = dissociation constant)?

a. Affinity of a drug = 1 + Kd

b. Affinity of a drug = Kd – 1

c. Affinity of a drug = 1 x Kd

d. Affinity of a drug = Kd/1

e. Affinity of a drug = 1/Kd

30 / 97

30) Exemestane act on what enzyme?

a. Aromatase

b. Reductase

c. Carbonic anhydrase

d. Cyclooxygenases

e. Phospholipase

31 / 97

31) What quality of drug is to be said high affinity to its target?

a. rate of dissociation [Kd] is medium

b. rate of dissociation [Kd] is high

c. rate of dissociation [Kd] is very high

d. rate of dissociation [Kd] is low

e. rate of dissociation [Kd] is indefinite

32 / 97

32) What is the haft life of a drug with constant elimination Ke 1/10?

a. 10h

b. 5h

c. 8h

d. 4h

e. 7h

33 / 97

33) Which of the following metabolisms is used to conjugate (phase 2) a metabolite in the liver?

a. Deamination

b. Oxidation

c. Hydrolysis

d. Acetylation

e. Hydroxylation

34 / 97

34) Theophylline acts trough what mechanism?

a. Inhibiting 5α reductase

b. Inhibiting COX1 and COX2

c. Inhibiting PDE 3

d. Inhibiting cholinesterase

e. Activating LOX

35 / 97

35) What is the property of a drug with large volume distribution?

a. Lipophilic

b. Hydrophilic

c. High affinity to serum albumin

d. Amphoteric

e. Macromolecule

36 / 97

36) What is the constant of dissociation of a drug Kd from its target?

a. Kd = Koff/Kon

b. Kd = Kon – Koff

c. Kd = Koff – Kon

d. Kd = Kon/Koff

e. Kd = Kon + Koff

37 / 97

37) Owing to Kd = dissociation constant; Ro = Total receptor. Formulate law mass action indicating the interaction between Drug – Receptor (D – R)

a. D-R = ([R0] + [D]) / ([D] x Kd)

b. D-R = ([R0] x [D]) x ([D] + Kd)

c. D-R = ([R0] x [D]) – ([D] + Kd)

d. D-R = ([R0] x [D]) / ([D] + Kd)

e. D-R = ([R0] x [D]) + ([D] + Kd)

38 / 97

38) What combination should be avoided in a patient with ischemic heart disease?

a. Prostaglandin + nitrate

b. CCB + β blocker

c. sildenafil + nitrate

d. sildenafil + β blocker

e. Prostaglandin +β blocker

39 / 97

39) What is the property of a drug with partial agonist but high potency?

a. EC50 high + response submaximal

b. EC50 low + response submaximal

c. EC50 high + response maximal

d. EC50 low + response maximal

40 / 97

40) What is the formula for bioavailability of drug? AUC area under curve

a. AUC iv/AUC po x 100

b. AUC po/AUC iv + 100

c. AUC po/AUC iv x 100

d. AUC po/AUC iv /100

e. AUC iv/AUC po/100

41 / 97

41) What are the components of base sequence?

a. A – B – C – D

b. T – U – V – X

c. A – G – T – C

d. C – D – E – F

e. G – H – I – J

42 / 97

42) Poor acetylation may alter metabolism of what drugs?

a. Rifampicin

b. Aspirin

c. hydralazine

d. Steroid

e. Acetaminophen

43 / 97

43) What is the mechanism of action of morphine?

a. Acting through binding on exchanger Na + – Ca ++

b. Acting through binding on tyrosine kinase coupled receptor

c. Acting through binding on potassium channel

d. Acting through binding on G protein couple receptor

e. Acting through binding on enzyme adenylate cyclase

44 / 97

44) What is the effect of AVP on V1 receptor?

a. ACTH releasing

b. Inhibition post-synaptic potential

c. Reabsorption of Na + – Cl –

d. Reabsorption of water

e. Vasoconstriction

45 / 97

45) What is the meaning of EC50?

a. Drug concentration gives rise to efficacity in one half life

b. One half-life gives rise to efficacy 50%

c. Drug concentration gives rise to efficacity optimum

d. Drug concentration gives rise to efficacity maximum

e. Drug concentration gives rise to efficacity 50%

46 / 97

46) What is the effect of AVP on V2 receptor?

a. Reabsorption of water

b. Vasoconstriction

c. Activation post-synaptic potential

d. ACTH releasing

e. Reabsorption of Na + – Cl –

47 / 97

47) Aspirin is a weak acid with pK3. What pH in the stomach Aspirin would be highly absorbed?

a. 5

b. 1

c. 2

d. 4

e. 3

48 / 97

48) Digoxin achieves its effect through binding what type of the following transporters?

a. Facilitated diffusion

b. Simple diffusion

c. Secondary transport active

d. Primary transport active

e. Anion exchange

49 / 97

49) Finasteride act on what enzyme?

a. Cholinesterase

b. Lipoxygenase

c. Reductase

d. Cyclooxygenases

e. Aromatase

50 / 97

50) What cause the adverse effect of fat-soluble drug in elderly person?

a. increased hepatic clearance

b. slow gastric emptying

c. decreased volume distribution

d. increased renal clearance

e. increased volume distribution

51 / 97

51) How many haft lives of drug the kidney should clear it totally from the body?

a. 4

b. 5

c. 3

d. 2

e. 6

52 / 97

52) Amiloride acts on what of the following transporters?

a. Na + – Ca ++ exchanger

b. HCO3- – Cl – exchanger

c. Na + – K + ATPases pump

d. Renal outer medullary K + channel (ROMK)

e. Epithelial Na + channel (ENaC)

53 / 97

53) Physostigmine act on what enzyme?

a. Cyclooxygenases

b. Cholinesterase

c. Aromatase

d. Reductase

e. Lipoxygenase

54 / 97

54) Define Gene

a. Translation error of the messenger RNA

b. Transcription error of the base sequence

c. change in the base sequence

d. order sequence of A-G-T-C

e. Degeneration of protein

55 / 97

55) Amphetamine is weak base with pK3. What pH in the intestine, it would be absorbed 50%?

a. 3

b. 1

c. 5

d. 4

e. 2

56 / 97

56) What HLA gene that related to Stevens Johnson syndrome with carbamazepine?

a. HLA-DQB*05

b. HLA-DQB1*0201

c. HLA*1502

d. HLAB*5701

e. HLA-DBQ*06

57 / 97

57) What properties of a drug is to be said full agonist?

a. Affinity to receptor with submaximal response

b. Affinity to receptor with inverse response

c. Affinity to receptor with high maximal response

d. Low affinity to receptor with no response

e. Affinity to receptor with no response

58 / 97

58) Aspirin acts on what of the following enzymes?

a. Phospholipase

b. Cyclooxygenase

c. Carbonic anhydrase

d. Converting enzyme

e. Phosphodiesterase

59 / 97

59) What HLA gene that related to agranulocytosis with carbamazepine?

a. HLA-DQB*05

b. HLAB*5701

c. HLA-DBQ*06

d. HLA-DQB1*0201

e. HLA*1502

60 / 97

60) What is the management to avoid interaction of rifampicin with warfarin?

a. Change formula of one drug

b. decrease dose of precipitant drug

c. give one drugs on hour before another

d. avoid concurrent therapy

e. adjust dose of affected drug after INR

61 / 97

61) Amlodipine acts on what of the following transporters?

a. Na + – Ca ++ exchanger

b. T-type voltage calcium Channel

c. K+ dependent calcium channel

d. L-type voltage calcium channel

e. Ca ++ ATPases pump

62 / 97

62) What is the signification of dissociation constant Kd?

a. Concentration of drug capable of binding 50% of the total receptors

b. Concentration of drug capable of dissociate from receptors by 80%

c. Concentration of drug capable of binding 100% of the total receptors

d. Concentration of drug capable of dissociate from receptors by 20%

e. Concentration of drug capable of dissociate totally from receptors

63 / 97

63) When partial agonist drug is given with full agonist drug, what is the dynamic interaction as a result?

a. permissive

b. inverse

c. synergic

d. competitive

e. additive

64 / 97

64) THIAZIDES acts on what of the following transporters?

a. Na + – K + ATPases pump

b. H + – K + ATPases pump

c. Na + – Ca ++ exchanger

d. HCO3- – Cl – exchanger

e. Co-transport Na + – Cl –

65 / 97

65) Triamterene acts on what of the following transporters?

a. Primary transport active

b. Simple diffusion

c. Cation exchange

d. Anion exchange

e. Facilitated diffusion

66 / 97

66) What is the property of a drug with full agonist and low potency?

a. EC50 high + response maximal

b. EC50 low + response maximal

c. EC50 high + response submaximal

d. EC50 high + response inverse

e. EC50 low + response submaximal

67 / 97

67) What cytochrome involved in interaction of warfarin and phenobarbital?

a. CYP3A4

b. CYP2C9

c. CYP2D7

d. CYP2D6

e. CYP3A5

68 / 97

68) Digoxin acts on what of the following transporters?

a. Co-transport Na + – K + – 2Cl –

b. Na + – Ca ++ exchanger

c. Co-transport Na + – Cl –

d. H + – K + ATPases pump

e. Na + – K + ATPases pump

69 / 97

69) Omeprazole acts on what of the following transporters?

a. Na + – Ca ++ exchanger

b. Na + – K + ATPases pump

c. Co-transport Na + – K + – 2Cl –

d. H + – K + ATPases pump

e. Co-transport Na + – Cl –

70 / 97

70) What is the common substitution of nucleotide in polymorphism?

a. G for A

b. A for G

c. C for T

d. T for C

e. G for T

71 / 97

71) How many haft lives of drug we administrate to get its plasma concentration at steady state?

a. 3

b. 6

c. 5

d. 2

e. 4

72 / 97

72) Which drug is excreted with zero order kinetic?

a. rifampicin

b. cimetidine

c. atropine

d. acetaminophen

e. alcohol

73 / 97

73) Give the equation for maintenance dose?

a. D = distribution volume x effective plasma concentration

b. D = Clearance x effective plasma concentration

c. D = distribution volume /effective plasma concentration

d. D = Clearance/effective plasma concentration

e. D = distribution volume + effective plasma concentration

74 / 97

74) Poor acetylation may alter metabolism of what drugs?

a. Acetaminophen

b. Aspirin

c. phenytoin

d. Steroid

e. Rifampicin

75 / 97

75) What is the distribution volume of a drug given 500mg iv with its plasma concentration 25mg/L at steady state?

a. 5L

b. 10L

c. 15L

d. 20L

e. 30L

76 / 97

76) Interaction of Digoxin combined with Quinidine is done through what process?

a. Activating Cytochrome P450

b. Binding to Allosteric site of receptor

c. Competition for organic Anion Transporter

d. Displacing from Albumin

e. Inactivating P glycoprotein

77 / 97

77) What pathway of administration of drug result in bioavailability 100%?

a. IV

b. Subcutaneous

c. Inhalation

d. IM

e. PO

78 / 97

78) What is the result of polymorphism for an individual to response to a drug?

a. same drug with different responses in different individuals

b. same drug with different responses in an individual

c. different drugs have the same response in an individual

d. different drugs have different response in different individuals

e. same drug with same response in different individuals

79 / 97

79) What polymorphism gene that relate to tamoxifen metabolism?

a. CYP2D6

b. HLAB*5701

c. CYP3A4

d. CYP2C9

e. VKORC1

80 / 97

80) Define inverse agonist

a. affinity to receptor with maximal response

b. No affinity to receptor with inverse response

c. affinity to receptor with inverse response

d. affinity to receptor with no response

e. affinity to receptor with partial response

81 / 97

81) Loop diuretics achieves its effect through binding what type of the following transporters?

a. Facilitated diffusion

b. Primary transport active

c. Anion exchange

d. Secondary transport active

e. Simple diffusion

82 / 97

82) What Enzyme deficiency due to gene mutation → interaction thiopurine with allopurinol?

a. Xanthine oxidase

b. TPMT

c. Cholinesterase

d. G6PD

e. DPYD

83 / 97

83) Calcium channel blocker acts through what mechanism?

a. Block Na + – Ca ++ exchanger

b. Activate inactive gate of calcium channel

c. Block Ca ++ ATPase pump

d. Block calcium dependent potassium channel

e. Block voltage dependent calcium channel

84 / 97

84) What metabolic pathway of drug is preferred to the elderly person?

a. oxidation

b. acetylation

c. alkylation

d. reduction

e. glucuronidation

85 / 97

85) What is the property of a drug with small volume distribution?

a. Hydrophilic

b. Lipophilic

c. High affinity to serum albumin

d. Amphoteric

e. Macromolecule

86 / 97

86) What cytochrome involved in interaction of erythromycin and phenobarbital?

a. CYP2D7

b. CYP3A4/5

c. CYP2D6

d. CYP2C10

e. CYP2C9

87 / 97

87) What HLA gene that related to susceptibility of abacavir?

a. HLA-DQB*05

b. HLA-DBQ*06

c. HLA-DQB1*0201

d. HLAB*5701

e. HLA*1502

88 / 97

88) What Enzyme deficiency related to gene mutation → hemolysis?

a. Xanthine oxidase

b. DPYD

c. TPMT

d. Cholinesterase

e. G6PD

89 / 97

89) What is the property of a drug with full agonist and high potency?

a. EC50 high + response maximal

b. EC50 low + response inverse

c. EC50 low + response maximal

d. EC50 high + response submaximal

e. EC50 low + response submaximal

90 / 97

90) Poor acetylation may alter metabolism of what drugs?

a. Steroid

b. Rifampicin

c. Aspirin

d. INH

e. Acetaminophen

91 / 97

91) What polymorphism gene that relate to warfarin metabolism?

a. CYP3A4

b. CYP2C9

c. CYP2D7

d. CYP2D6

e. VKORC1

92 / 97

92) What is the effect of NSAID + Warfarin?

a. thrombocytopenia

b. hyper coagulation

c. hypo coagulation

d. decreased inflammation

e. increased inflammation

93 / 97

93) Relate elimination constant (Ke) to clearance (CL) and distribution volume (Vd) of drug?

a. Ke = Vd x CL

b. Ke = CL/Vd

c. Ke = Vd + CL

d. Ke = Vd – CL

e. Ke = Vd/CL

94 / 97

94) What properties of a drug is to be said inverse agonist?

a. High affinity to receptor with submaximal response

b. High affinity to receptor with no response

c. Affinity to receptor with inverse response

d. Low affinity to receptor with maximal response

e. Low affinity to receptor with no response

95 / 97

95) What is the loading dose of a drug with volume distribution 20L and its plasma concentration required at steady state is 25 mg/L?

a. 600 mg

b. 800 mg

c. 500 mg

d. 200 mg

e. 400 mg

96 / 97

96) Formulate half-life T1/2 related to rate of elimination Ke?

a. T1/2= ln2 – Ke

b. T1/2=ln2/Ke

c. T1/2 = Ke/ln2

d. T1/2=ln2 x Ke

e. T1/2= ln2 + Ke

97 / 97

97) What is the formula of plasma centration of drug at any time (CT) during elimination? C0: initial concentration; Ke constant of elimination; T: time

a. CT = C0 / KeT

b. CT = C0 – KeT

c. CT = C0 x KeT

d. CT = C0 + KeT

e. CT = C0.e -KeT

Your score is

The average score is 83%

Any comments?

Any problems/errors or mistakes found while testing, please let us know for modification!

និស្សិតអាចប្រាប់មកកាន់ពួកយើងបានដើម្បីកែកំហុស ឬអំពីបញ្ហាដោយអចេតនាណាមួយដែលកើតមានកំឡុងពេលធ្វើតេស្ត