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Pharmacologie Preparation (Pr. Ast. Duong Dararith)

 

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1) Which of the following Ξ²-blockers is noted for also producing vasodilation by blocking vascular Ξ±-receptors?

2 / 125

2) Dronedarone is preferred over amiodarone for some patients because it:

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3) Adenosine’s key anti-arrhythmic action is:

4 / 125

4) Reducing preload in IHD primarily helps by:

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5) Nicorandil treats angina through a dual mechanism involving:

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6) What is the term for abnormal pacemaker activity originating outside the SA node?

7 / 125

7) What substance, naturally produced in the body and also used clinically, powerfully stimulates the activity of Antithrombin?

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8) Which vessel type is primarily responsible for controlling systemic blood pressure (BP) due to its high smooth muscle content?

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9) Beta-blockers are generally not preferred first-line for hypertension unless there are additional indications because:

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10) How does aspirin achieve its antiplatelet effect?

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11) Fibrinolytic drugs are most effective when administered:

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12) Calcium Channel Blockers (CCBs) like nifedipine and amlodipine cause vasodilation and reduce BP by:

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13) Which natural anticoagulant, produced by endothelial cells, is a key inhibitor of both thrombin and activated Factor X?

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14) A patient on antihypertensive treatment experiences cold hands and feet. He is likely taking which medication?

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15) Compared to ACEIs, Angiotensin Receptor Blockers (ARBs – e.g., losartan) have the main advantage of:

16 / 125

16) What is the specific reversal agent for bleeding caused by unfractionated heparin?

17 / 125

17) A 48-year-old hypertensive patient started on thiazide diuretics has improved BP but develops muscle weakness and fatigue. Labs show hypokalemia. What is the likely explanation?

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18) What is the primary trigger for the Intrinsic Pathway?

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19) Statins are recommended for use in patients with type 1 diabetes primarily because they:

20 / 125

20) Re-entrant circuits causing arrhythmias require:

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21) A key adverse effect of digoxin exacerbated by hypokalaemia is:

22 / 125

22) Why does the anticoagulant effect of warfarin take several days to develop fully?

23 / 125

23) Which mechanism is described as a “slower, more sustained mechanism” in BP regulation due to changes in total body water?

24 / 125

24) A 56-year-old woman with hypertension and heart failure is prescribed an ACE inhibitor. What beneficial effect beyond BP lowering is expected?

25 / 125

25) Why is Streptokinase typically used only once in a patient’s lifetime?

26 / 125

26) A 72-year-old woman with isolated systolic hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. What is the most likely mechanism of its antihypertensive effect?

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27) Which fibrinolytic drug is derived from bacterial sources and carries a significant risk of allergic reaction and antibody formation?

28 / 125

28) The Final Common Pathway of coagulation involves the activation of:

29 / 125

29) Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT) is caused by:

30 / 125

30) Which class is typically recommended as first-line treatment for hypertension in a younger diabetic patient?

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31) Which of the following drugs is a K + -channel agonist used as a vasodilator in IHD?

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32) What is the specific reversal agent for life-threatening bleeding caused by dabigatran?

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33) The plateau phase (Phase 2) of the cardiac action potential is maintained by:

34 / 125

34) Amiodarone’s half-life is approximately:

35 / 125

35) Sympathetic activation in early heart failure is compensatory because it:

36 / 125

36) Atrial flutter due to a re-entrant mechanism is best controlled with which of the following, especially if structural heart disease is present?

37 / 125

37) Spironolactone is considered a useful second-line agent in resistant hypertension primarily because:

38 / 125

38) The proposed mechanism for statin-induced muscle pain involves:

39 / 125

39) The characteristic dry cough associated with ACEIs is primarily attributed to:

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40) A 45-year-old woman with resistant hypertension is started on spironolactone. What is the main mechanism by which this drug helps reduce blood pressure?

41 / 125

41) What is a key vascular side effect of non-selective beta-blockers like propranolol, and what is its mechanism?

42 / 125

42) A 70-year-old woman with a history of angina complains of frequent headaches and facial flushing after starting a new medication. She takes a sublingual drug during chest pain. What is the likely medication?

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43) According to the equation BP = CO x TPR, what does the Sympathetic Nervous System (SNS) primarily increase via Ξ²-receptors and Ξ±-receptors, respectively?

44 / 125

44) Which equation correctly represents systemic blood pressure regulation?

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45) Which drug interaction increases digoxin toxicity risk?

46 / 125

46) What is the key enzyme responsible for dissolving the fibrin clot?

47 / 125

47) Which drug is contraindicated in patients with heart failure or post-MI?

48 / 125

48) Which ion influx primarily causes depolarization in the SA and AV nodes?

49 / 125

49) Which class of drugs primarily treats IHD by slowing the heart rate, reducing contractility, and thereby decreasing myocardial oxygen consumption?

50 / 125

50) Which drug prolongs the AV nodal action potential and delays conduction?

51 / 125

51) Why are antiplatelet drugs generally more effective at preventing arterial thrombosis than venous thrombosis?

52 / 125

52) The synergistic action of combining Ezetimibe with a Statin results in:

53 / 125

53) A 58-year-old hypertensive man is given hydralazine. Which of the following is a common reflex response to its vasodilator action?

54 / 125

54) Why are nitrate vasodilators such as glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) not suitable for long-term monotherapy in HTN?

55 / 125

55) Why is digoxin especially useful in heart failure with atrial fibrillation?

56 / 125

56) Which drug class is a cornerstone in heart failure treatment due to its effects on preload, afterload, and SNS activity?

57 / 125

57) What is the primary mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors in HTN treatment?

58 / 125

58) Why must heparin (unfractionated or LMW) be administered parenterally (injected)?

59 / 125

59) What is the primary function of healthy vascular endothelium in preventing inappropriate clotting?

60 / 125

60) What is a critical reason ACEIs and ARBs should NEVER be co-prescribed?

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61) A patient with premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) originating from an ectopic ventricular focus after MI is treated. Which drug is preferred?

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62) A patient is started on losartan for HTN. Which advantage does losartan have over enalapril?

63 / 125

63) Compared to arterial thrombi, venous thrombi typically contain a higher proportion of:

64 / 125

64) Amiodarone’s primary mechanism of action is:

65 / 125

65) Dabigatran is classified as a:

66 / 125

66) A major limitation of sustained nitrate therapy (e.g., patches, infusions) for chronic angina is:

67 / 125

67) What is the major side effect of minoxidil that limits its use in first-line HTN therapy?

68 / 125

68) Refractoriness during the cardiac action potential prevents:

69 / 125

69) Which of the following is NOT a primary goal of drug therapy in IHD?

70 / 125

70) Which molecule, released by activated platelets and sticking via specific receptors, forms the fibrous network trapping cells?

71 / 125

71) What is the primary endogenous mediator responsible for the vasodilator effect of Glyceryl Trinitrate (GTN)?

72 / 125

72) What is the primary mechanism by which reducing heart rate improves coronary artery blood flow in IHD?

73 / 125

73) A patient on combination antihypertensive therapy is found to have dangerously low GFR and hyperkalemia. Which drug combination is most likely responsible?

74 / 125

74) Why must Ξ²-blockers be used cautiously in heart failure?

75 / 125

75) Bosentan, an endothelin-receptor antagonist, is primarily used for:

76 / 125

76) Why is sublingual administration critical for GTN’s rapid effect in acute angina?

77 / 125

77) Alteplase and Tenecteplase are:

78 / 125

78) A 64-year-old man with HTN and benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is started on prazosin. Which of the following is the most likely early adverse effect to monitor?

79 / 125

79) A patient develops ventricular tachycardia after a myocardial infarction. What is the most likely underlying electrophysiologic mechanism?

80 / 125

80) Platelet activation and aggregation at an injury site is a classic example of:

81 / 125

81) Digoxin’s mechanism in heart failure includes:

82 / 125

82) Which of the following is a CONTRAINDICATION for statin use?

83 / 125

83) Why are Thiazide diuretics considered to have a sustained effect in hypertension beyond their initial diuretic action?

84 / 125

84) Sotalol has combined actions of:

85 / 125

85) Minoxidil is reserved for severe, resistant hypertension primarily because it:

86 / 125

86) Digoxin can be useful in atrial fibrillation by:

87 / 125

87) ACEIs are preferred over ARAs in heart failure unless:

88 / 125

88) A 58-year-old man with hypertension presents with a persistent dry cough after starting antihypertensive therapy 3 weeks ago. Which drug is the most likely cause?

89 / 125

89) How does heparin primarily exert its anticoagulant effect?

90 / 125

90) A patient on minoxidil for refractory hypertension presents with new-onset hirsutism. What is the mechanism behind this effect?

91 / 125

91) Vitamin K is essential for the hepatic synthesis of which clotting factors?

92 / 125

92) A 65-year-old man with type 2 diabetes and proteinuria is diagnosed with stage 1 hypertension. Which medication is most appropriate to initiate?

93 / 125

93) A 35-year-old woman with pulmonary arterial hypertension is treated with bosentan. What serious adverse effect should be regularly monitored?

94 / 125

94) A patient with HTN develops angioedema after starting an antihypertensive. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

95 / 125

95) Vasodilators benefit angina pectoris by which of the following actions?

96 / 125

96) Spironolactone is effective in hypertension and heart failure primarily because it:

97 / 125

97) Statins exert their primary lipid-lowering effect by inhibiting which enzyme?

98 / 125

98) Lidocaine (Class Ib) is effective only in:

99 / 125

99) Warfarin exerts its anticoagulant effect by:

100 / 125

100) What is the specific reversal agent for life-threatening bleeding caused by warfarin?

101 / 125

101) Why do PDE inhibitors (e.g., milrinone) improve contractility without increasing heart rate?

102 / 125

102) Which of the following drugs slows conduction through the AV node and is most effective for re-entrant supraventricular tachycardia?

103 / 125

103) Which drug causes antimuscarinic side effects (e.g., dry mouth, constipation)?

104 / 125

104) Apixaban and Rivaroxaban are classified as:

105 / 125

105) What defines a cardiac arrhythmia?

106 / 125

106) A 60-year-old male is started on nifedipine for hypertension. Two weeks later, he reports swollen ankles. What is the most likely cause of this symptom?

107 / 125

107) A 67-year-old man with a history of myocardial infarction presents with sustained ventricular tachycardia. Which drug is most appropriate to break a re-entrant circuit in this setting?

108 / 125

108) The antiplatelet effect of a single dose of aspirin lasts several days primarily because:

109 / 125

109) How do diuretics (e.g., furosemide) benefit heart failure?

110 / 125

110) Which endothelium-derived substance is a potent vasoconstrictor?

111 / 125

111) A patient with HTN is on aliskiren monotherapy. Which clinical condition requires caution or avoidance of this drug in combination with ACEIs or ARBs?

112 / 125

112) A 70-year-old woman presents with atrial fibrillation due to an ectopic focus in the atria. Which agent is most suitable to control ventricular rate by slowing AV nodal conduction?

113 / 125

113) What is the primary mechanism by which Ξ²-blockers help reduce blood pressure, specifically regarding the RAAS?

114 / 125

114) Ezetimibe lowers cholesterol levels by:

115 / 125

115) Which class is typically preferred as first-line treatment for hypertension in an older non-diabetic patient?

116 / 125

116) Which anti-arrhythmic agent is most pro-arrhythmic and should be avoided in patients with structural heart disease or previous MI due to risk of fatal arrhythmias from ectopic foci?

117 / 125

117) Clopidogrel and Prasugrel exert their antiplatelet effect by:

118 / 125

118) A key reason ACEIs (like ramipril) are beneficial in diabetic nephropathy is that they:

119 / 125

119) Why are Adenosine-receptor antagonists (like Clopidogrel) often used in combination with Aspirin?

120 / 125

120) Prazosin and Doxazosin reduce blood pressure primarily by:

121 / 125

121) What is the primary trigger for the Extrinsic Pathway?

122 / 125

122) Which drug class directly inhibits the enzyme responsible for converting Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II, making it a key target in hypertension?

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123) Aliskiren is unique among RAAS-targeting drugs because it is a:

124 / 125

124) Adenosine must be avoided in asthma because it:

125 / 125

125) . What initiates the “vicious cycle” in heart failure?

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